Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Oct 2013, at 19:23, John Clark wrote:





On Tue, Oct 8, 2013 at 3:51 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


  [your] body-copy will be in two places, [you] can feel to be in  
only one place.


If the copies are really identical then you feel to be in only one  
place (insofar as spatial position has any meaning when talking  
about consciousness)


Which it has not. We both have agreed already on this. And the copies  
are identical, as bodies reconstitiuted at the right substitution  
level, but they are in two different place, as they will notice when  
opening the door. And the Hesnki man knows that in advance, so he  
knows that (whoever he is and will be) there is 1/2 chance to see M  
(or W).




because you really are in only one place, regardless of how many  
copies are made or where those bodies are.


Exactly.




 The question is which city will [he] observed.

The question is will he turn into the Moscow Man or the Washington  
Man,


Yes. And it is (and can be justified entirely with math) a non  
constructive OR.




and that depends on one thing and one thing only, what information  
he receives.


Not at all. It depends on the entire protocol. the information he will  
have will confirm or refute his prediction (written in his diary, for  
all possible he's relevant).


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Oct 2013, at 03:25, chris peck wrote:


Hi Bruno

 I don't see why. There is a chance of 1/2 to feel oneself in M,  
and of 1/2 to feel oneself in W, but the probability is 1 (assuming  
comp, the protocol, etc.) to find oneself alive.


This begs the question.


You make a quote out of the context.




And the probability of finding oneself alive is 1 in both your view  
and mine.


Good. So it is one that he stay alive, and so it can only be one halve  
that it will be W, or M.  The copies are numerically identical, P(M) =  
P(W), and so 1/2 is the only solution.






 P(W v M) = P(W) + P(M) as W and M are disjoint incompatible  
(first person) events.


That they are disjoint is fine. And they are incompatible only  
insofar as no person, Bruno-Helsinki, Bruno-Washington or Bruno- 
Moscow, in the experiment will experience both simultaneously.


OK.



But Bruno-Helsinki will experience each outcome.


How could that ever be possible?
experience is taken in the first person pint of view, and they can  
be only W, or M, not both. You need some telepathy, or you need  
another protocol.


In the 3p view, you are right, but that was not the question asked.






Whats missing here is a discussion about what conditions are  
required in order to induce a feeling of subjective uncertainty in  
Bruno-Helsinki.


The 1p-indeterminacy is objective and has nothing to do with a  
feeling. It is obtained by a reasoning.




I think what is required is some ignorance over the details of the  
situation, but there are none. Bruno-Helsinki knows all there is to  
know about the situation that is relevant.


Yes, indeed, that is what is revolutionary (forgetting the MWI). We  
are in a context where we have all the information, and yet cannot  
predict an elementary outcome. It shows that determinacy entails  
objective first person indeterminacies (objective because 3p- 
communicable).
The same can be said for Everett QM, accepting to interpret a self- 
superposition as a sort of self-duplication, or self-differentiation.






He knows that in his future there will be two 'copies' of him; one  
in Moscow, one in Washington. By 'yes doctor' he knows that both  
these 'copies' are related to him in a manner that preserves  
identity in exactly the same way. There will be no sense in which  
Bruno-Washington is more Bruno-Helsinki than Bruno-Moscow.


All this made my point. I agree.



That is the essence of 'yes doctor'. So, at the point in time when  
Bruno-Helsinki is asked what he expects to see, there are no other  
relevant facts. Consequently there is no room for subjective  
uncertainty.


But there is still an objective indeterminacy. By reasoning alone, we  
can see that only W V M, but I don't know which one will always be  
confirmed, and anything more precise will be refuted by some copies.







It would therefore be absurd of Bruno-Helsinki to assign a  
probability of 50% to either outcome. It would be like saying only  
one of the future Bruno's shares a relationship of identity with him.


But that has to be the case from the future points of view. Like John  
Clark, you seem to pursue the thought experiment at the first person  
perspective after the duplication.





This is why I say your analysis violates the yes doctor axiom.


?  (see just above).




This can be contrasted with a response from either of the copies  
when asked the same question. If asked before opening their eyes,  
both Bruno-Washington and Bruno-Moscow are ignorant of their location.


OK. The duplication is responsible for that ignorance. The helsinki  
man know that on advance, and so, knows in advance that he will not  
been abale to know his location before opening his eyes. You can add  
the principle that if I know in advance that I will be confronted to  
an uncertainty, then I am right now uncertain. In some lengthier  
explanation, I add principles like that, but they are confusing for  
most, so I delete such type of (too much obvious) principle.




Ofcourse, apart from the fact that asking the question at this point  
is far too late for Bruno-Helsinki, this is not a relevent fact for  
him. Because he has no doubt that an identity maintaining version of  
him will be in each location.


I have to admit, what with you being a professor and all that, I did  
begin to feel like I was going mad. Luckily, the other day I found a  
paper by Hillary Greaves Understanding Deutcsh's Probability in a  
Deterministic Multiverse. Section 4.1 discusses subjective  
uncertainty in a generalized setting and argues for the exact same  
conclusions I have been reaching just intuitively. This doesn't make  
either of us right or wrong, but it gives me confidence to know that  
subjective uncertainty is not a foregone conclusion as I sometimes  
have felt it has been presented on this list. It is an analysis that  
has been peer reviewed and deemed worthy of publishing and warrants  
more than the hand waving scoffs 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Oct 2013, at 03:37, LizR wrote:

If Helsinki man understands the situation, he will assign a 100%  
probability to him being duplicated and ending in both places.  
Similarly a physicist who believes in MWI will assign a 100%  
probability to him splitting and observing all possible outcomes.  
This is not, however, how people normally view these matters. The  
physicist feels that he had a (say) 50% chance of him observing spin- 
up despite his knowledge of the MWI, and I guess Helsinki man feels  
the same way about arriving in Moscow, if only because our brains  
are wired to think in terms of the single universe view. I think  
Bruno's take on this is acceptable in terms of how we think about  
things in everyday life.


Once the duplication has been performed, one copy of the man then  
has a 50% chance of being Moscow man, and his (spurious) sense of  
always only being the single unique copy of himself would lead him  
to feel that this was the chance beforehand. So it's fair for Bruno  
to ask Helsinki man how he estimates his chances of arriving in  
Moscow, assuming folk psychology is involved (ditto for the  
physicist).


OK.




However this is only really quibbling about the fact that our  
everyday attitude often doesn't cover the realities of how the  
universe works.


The probabilities does not depend on how the universe work, but only  
on computer science, which does not assume anything physical (note  
even a physical reality).
Then the (easy) probability calculus we got here is part of the  
explanation of how the universe works, and indeed why we are  
confronted with an apparent universe/multiverses, although this is  
part of the difficult remaining work (to get the correct hamiltonian  
and things like that).


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Oct 2013, at 05:50, chris peck wrote:


Hi Liz


Oh dear, I think I will go and lie down now.

(Or then again, I won't...)

Precisely. Being a true MWI believer you can be certain of both. :)



Then we can be certain that we are all the same person. We all comes  
from the same duplicating amoeba.

And I can be certain to win all games based on randomness.

But the point is not on identity. It is only about predicting what I  
will (immediately) see when opening a door, after having pushed on a  
button.


It is possible to rephrase the protocol in a way such that the user  
does not know he will be duplicated, and only evaluate the  
probabilities from the frequencies obtained and described in the  
personal diaries of the copies. In that case some iterations is useful.


With the definition of 1p and 3p, given entirely in term of  
annihilation and reconstitution, of diaries, the 1p-indeterminacy is  
3p-justifiable.


In the math part, they are justifiable purely in terms of self- 
reference (Gödel, Löb, Solovay) logics. The indeterminacy is lived by  
1p, but that very fact is completely justified in the 3p discourse. We  
have to be careful not confusing the points of view involved.


Bruno









Date: Thu, 10 Oct 2013 16:35:56 +1300
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
From: lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com

I still think this is quibbling. I at least believe I know what  
Bruno means when he asks H-man to assign a probability to his  
chances of appearing in Moscow. Perhaps Bruno is being sloppy in  
talking about probabilities, because the whole situation is  
deterministic, but it does at least give a post-facto  
indeterminism like a quantum measurement does, so it's valid to the  
extent that we talk about probabilities at all (assuming the MWI).  
(Which is to say, it isn't really valid at all, but I still think I  
know what is intended!)


Oh dear, I think I will go and lie down now.

(Or then again, I won't...)

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Re: AUDA and pronouns

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Oct 2013, at 22:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/9/2013 12:26 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 08 Oct 2013, at 20:35, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/8/2013 2:51 AM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Mon, Oct 07, 2013 at 10:20:14AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Oct 2013, at 07:36, Russell Standish wrote:
...

and Bpp as he knows p, so the person order of
the pronoun is also not relevant.

Yes, you can read that in that way, but you get only the 3-view of
the 1-view.

Let us define [o]p by Bp  p

I am just pointing on the difference between B([o]p) and [o] 
([o]p).


Isn't B(Bp)=Bp so:


Bp - B(Bp)

but B(Bp) does not necessarly imply Bp.


??  That seems like strange logic.


Certainly. It came as a shock. It is the shock of Gödel and Löb  
incompleteness results. Those are truly revolutionary.

If you find this strange and shocking, it means you begin to grasp!


How, in classical logic, can you prove that p is provable and yet  
not conclude that p is provable.  I understand that the set of true  
propositions is bigger than the provable propositions, but I don't  
see that the set of provably provable propositions is smaller than  
the provable propositions?



See below.




B(Bp  p)  =?   B(Bp  p)  (Bp  P)


Why would that be? [o](Bp  p) = B(Bp  p)  (Bp  p), but not B(Bp  
 p), because B(Bp  p) does not imply Bp  p.


Not that I wrote =?  meaning is it equal?, not asserting it was  
equal, and I concluded below they were not equal.


You think like that because you know that B is correct, but B does  
not know it.


In particular, like Bf - f is true about B, but not provable by  
B, B(Bf)- Bf is also true about B, but not provable by B.


Here B designates the machine/person having B as provability  
predicate.


Bruno











Brent





Bp  =?  Bp  p  - false



And so, this does not follow. (Keep in mind that Bp does not imply  
p, from the machine's point of view). Think about Bf, if it implies  
f, we would have that the machine would know that ~Bf, and knows  
that she is consistent. She can't, if she is correct.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: And the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics goes to…

2013-10-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Oct 2013, at 22:22, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/9/2013 12:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 08 Oct 2013, at 23:56, LizR wrote:



http://www.quantumdiaries.org/2013/10/08/and-the-2013-nobel-prize-in-physics-goes-to/

Today the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to François  
Englert (Université Libre de Bruxelles, Belgium) and Peter W.  
Higgs (University of Edinburgh, UK). The official citation is “for  
the theoretical discovery of a mechanism that contributes to our  
understanding of the origin of mass of subatomic particles, and  
which recently was confirmed through the discovery of the  
predicted fundamental particle, by the ATLAS and CMS experiments  
at CERN’s Large Hadron Collider.”



I know him very well. I begun my work in his team, with Robert  
Brout. He asked me how to apply QM in cosmology, and I refer to the  
MWI. He added some footnote in one of his papers, just referring to  
Everett's original work, without any detail. He didn't like this,  
but somehow understood it is hard to make sense of quantum  
cosmology without it.
I am happy that after 50 years he is recognized as one the main  
discover of the Higgs boson. I am happy for Higgs too.


The seminal papers suggesting the higgs-field were written  
independently about the same time by Higgs, by Englert and Brout,  
and also by Kibble, Gaulnik, and Hagen.  I've often thought the it  
came to called the higgs boson just because it's a lot easier to say  
higgs than englert-brout or kibble-gaulnik-hagen.  I  
understand that Peter Higgs is a very nice, modest man and is a  
little embarassed by having the particle named after him, although  
he did develop the idea a little more than the others and is  
certainly deserving.



But in my view, even more deserving are the thousands of engineers,  
technicians, and physicists who designed and built the LHC and the  
ATLAS and CMS detectors.  Surely the most amazing machine ever built.


I agree. In a forum someone asked if the Nobel prize should not be  
given to those who made the LHC, and the answer was that they were too  
many ...
I find unfair also that there is no post-mortem Nobel prize, as Robert  
Brout deserves it too, but then he died too early.
Well, the mathematician's Field medal is worse, you have to be younger  
than 40!


But all this is vanity. François Englert said that he was happy with  
the Nobel prize, but that he was still more happier from having done  
his fundamental research.








Now, the Nobel prize itself has been obscured by Obama's peace  
prize, like if it was giving him the right to use drones to kill  
civilians, or to sign the NDAA ... Englert should have refuse it,  
perhaps, like Sartre in France or Perelman in Russia, ... I am not  
really serious, as it seems than the scientific Nobel prize is more  
seriously attributed.




Fortunately.

The Nobel Peace Prize has been wielded as a tool of political  
influence and has thereby become almost meaningless.  Obama got it  
for being a little less bellicose that George Bush.


... before his term!   (may be we are in a Gödel rotative universe,  
with time loops, in which case they could give the Nobel prize of  
physics, also before the research is done ... :)


Bruno



Brent
Political satire became obsolete when Henry Kissinger was awarded  
the Nobel Peace Prize.

--- Tom Lehrer



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: WSJ Article On Why Computers Make Lame Supermarket Cashiers

2013-10-10 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, October 9, 2013 8:30:16 PM UTC-4, Liz R wrote:

 On 10 October 2013 13:03, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:


 On Wednesday, October 9, 2013 5:52:46 PM UTC-4, Liz R wrote:

 On 10 October 2013 09:47, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 It's not that computers can't do what humans do,* it's that they can't 
 experience anything.* Mozart could dig a hole as well as compose 
 music, but that doesn't mean that a backhoe with a player piano on it is 
 Mozart. It's a much deeper problem with how machines are conceptualized 
 that has nothing at all to do with humans.


 So you think strong AI is wrong. OK. But why can't computers 
 experience anything, in principle, given that people can, and assuming 
 people are complicated machines?


 I don't think that people are machines. A machine is assembled 
 intentionally from unrelated substances to perform a function which is 
 alien to any of the substances. Living organisms are not assembled, they 
 grow from a single cell. They have no unrelated substances and all 
 functions they perform are local to the motives of the organism as a whole. 


 I believe that, at least in discussions such as this one, defining people 
 as machines has nothing to do with how or why they are constructed, and 
 eveything to do with ruling out any supernatural components. 


Right, but that's what I am saying is the problem. It would be like making 
generalizations about liquids based on water and saying that alcohol can't 
burn because it's a liquid. A machine and a person might both be able to 
say 'hello', but the machine was constructed by people who know what hello 
means, and the person knows what hello means because they were the ones who 
constructed the word. The word exists to serve their own agenda, not that 
of an alien programmer.

 

 Anyway, allow me to rephrase the question.

 I assume from the underlined comment that you think that strong AI is 
 wrong, and that we will never be able to build a conscious computer. How do 
 you come to that conclusion?


I guess that I came to that conclusion by first trying to exhaust the other 
alternatives and then by coming up with a way to make sense of awareness as 
what I call Primordial Identity Pansensitivity. This means that physics and 
information are incomplete reflections within sense rather than producers 
of consciousness. Physics is sense experience that is alienated by entropy 
(spacetime) and information is sense experience which has been alienated by 
generalization (abstraction). Information cannot be pieced together to make 
an experience. No copy can be made into an original. This is not because of 
some special sentimental feeling about consciousness, it's rooted in an a 
careful consideration of the number of clues that we have about perceptual 
relativity, authenticity, uniqueness, polarity, multiplicity, automaticity, 
representation, impersonality, and significance.


 This is an even bigger deal if I am right about the universe being 
 fundamentally a subdividing capacity for experience rather than a place or 
 theater of interacting objects or forces. It means that we are not our 
 body, rather a body is what someone else's lifetime looks like from inside 
 of your lifetime. It's a token. The mechanisms of the brain do not produce 
 awareness as a product, any more than these combinations of letter produce 
 the thoughts I am communicating. What we see neurons doing is comparable to 
 looking at a satellite picture of a city at night. We can learn a lot about 
 what a city does, but nothing about who lives in the city. A city, like a 
 human body, is a machine when you look at it from a distance, but what we 
 see of a body or a city would be perfectly fine with no awareness happening 
 at all. 


 Insofar as I understand it, I agree with this. I often wonder how a load 
 of atoms can have experiences so to speak. This is the so-called hard 
 problem of AI. It is (I think) addressed by comp.


If I'm right, then comp cannot address the hard problem. If we try to make 
it seem to address it, I think that it would have no choice but to get it 
exactly wrong. Comp fails because of the symbol grounding problem and the 
pathetic fallacy. It should be evident from Incompleteness, that no symbol 
can literally symbolize anything, and that all mathematical systems can 
only relate to isolated specifics or universal tautologies. Math cannot 
live because it can't change. It doesn't care. It doesn't know where it's 
been or where it's going. Comp is only one footprint of the absolute - the 
generic vacuum which divides experiences from each other. It misses 
presentation entirely, and so can only be a representation of 
representation...as Baudrillard would say, a Stage Four Simulacra:

The fourth stage is pure simulation, in which the simulacrum has no 
relationship to any reality whatsoever. Here, signs merely reflect other 
signs and any claim to reality on the part 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Oct 10, 2013 at 9:00 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

The question is will he turn into the Moscow Man or the Washington Man,


  Yes.


Thank you!

 and that depends on one thing and one thing only, what information he
 receives.



  Not at all.


What do you mean not at all?! The Helsinki Man has the neurons in his
brain arranged in a certain way and the Moscow Man, being a exact copy,
will have the neurons in his brain arranged in exactly the same manner and
the two will evolve in exactly the same manner too UNLESS they receive
different information, like one data stream coming from Helsinki and the
other data stream coming from Moscow. Only then would they differentiate
and only then would you be justified in giving them different names.

 It depends on the entire protocol. the information he will have will
 confirm or refute his prediction (written in his diary, for all possible
 he's relevant).


As far as personal identity or consciousness or a continuous feeling of
self is concerned it it totally irrelevant if that prediction, or any other
prediction for that matter, is confirmed or refuted, nor does it matter if
the prediction was probabilistic or absolute.

  John K Clark

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Re: WSJ Article On Why Computers Make Lame Supermarket Cashiers

2013-10-10 Thread LizR
On 11 October 2013 04:54, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unless a machine used living organisms, molecules would probably be the
 only natural things which an experience would be associated with. They
 don't know that they are part of a machine, but there is probably an
 experience that corresponds to thermodynamic and electromagnetic
 conditions. Experiences on that level may not be proprietary to any
 particular molecule - it could be very exotic, who knows. Maybe every atom
 of the same structure represents the same kind of experience on some
 radically different time scale from ours.


Wow! Molecular experiences! That seems..far out, man. Could you get me
some of whatever you're taking? :)

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread LizR
Both M and W man would have a continuous feeling of identity with H man. I
don't see that you two really have opposing viewpoints, although as usual I
may be missing something.

Of course if the brain can't be considered digital at any level (as Kermit
suggests) then this is actually impossible, and the question doesn't arise.
But personally I'm not about to embrance the idea that the universe is
analogue all the way down - with the problems that causes (like the
ultraviolety catastrophe) - and if it's digital at any level, this will
work.

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Re: WSJ Article On Why Computers Make Lame Supermarket Cashiers

2013-10-10 Thread LizR
On 11 October 2013 11:37, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Thursday, October 10, 2013 4:32:54 PM UTC-4, Liz R wrote:

 On 11 October 2013 04:54, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unless a machine used living organisms, molecules would probably be the
 only natural things which an experience would be associated with. They
 don't know that they are part of a machine, but there is probably an
 experience that corresponds to thermodynamic and electromagnetic
 conditions. Experiences on that level may not be proprietary to any
 particular molecule - it could be very exotic, who knows. Maybe every atom
 of the same structure represents the same kind of experience on some
 radically different time scale from ours.


 Wow! Molecular experiences! That seems..far out, man. Could you get
 me some of whatever you're taking? :)


 You mean can I get you some molecules to interact with the molecules of
 your brain :)?

 If we have experiences, and we are made of molecules, then what would be
 the logic of an arbitrary barrier beyond which non-experience suddenly
 turns into experience? If molecules don't need experiences to build
 biology, and stem cells don't need experience to build nervous systems and
 immune systems, then I find it pretty improbable that a particular species
 of animal would suddenly be the first entities to ever experience any part
 of the universe in any way, just because it makes it easier to to do the
 things that every other organism does - find food, reproduce, avoid
 threats.

 This is an interesting reversal of the usual argument of people like
Daniel Dennett, which goes something like we are made of molecules,
molecules can't have experiences, therefore we don't really have
experiences, we just think we do. -- Obviously paraphrased to absurdity,
but that's the basic idea as far as I can see. Your argument uses the same
logic, inverted - we have experiences, we're made of molecules, therefore
molecules have experiences!

Nice, although I feel that by stopping at molecules you're denying the fact
that quarks and electrons obviously have experiences too, and perhaps even
free will (Shall I be spin-up or spin down today?)

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Re: WSJ Article On Why Computers Make Lame Supermarket Cashiers

2013-10-10 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, October 10, 2013 6:53:18 PM UTC-4, Liz R wrote:

 On 11 October 2013 11:37, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:



 On Thursday, October 10, 2013 4:32:54 PM UTC-4, Liz R wrote:

 On 11 October 2013 04:54, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unless a machine used living organisms, molecules would probably be the 
 only natural things which an experience would be associated with. They 
 don't know that they are part of a machine, but there is probably an 
 experience that corresponds to thermodynamic and electromagnetic 
 conditions. Experiences on that level may not be proprietary to any 
 particular molecule - it could be very exotic, who knows. Maybe every atom 
 of the same structure represents the same kind of experience on some 
 radically different time scale from ours. 


 Wow! Molecular experiences! That seems..far out, man. Could you get 
 me some of whatever you're taking? :)


 You mean can I get you some molecules to interact with the molecules of 
 your brain :)? 

 If we have experiences, and we are made of molecules, then what would be 
 the logic of an arbitrary barrier beyond which non-experience suddenly 
 turns into experience? If molecules don't need experiences to build 
 biology, and stem cells don't need experience to build nervous systems and 
 immune systems, then I find it pretty improbable that a particular species 
 of animal would suddenly be the first entities to ever experience any part 
 of the universe in any way, just because it makes it easier to to do the 
 things that every other organism does - find food, reproduce, avoid 
 threats. 

 This is an interesting reversal of the usual argument of people like 
 Daniel Dennett, which goes something like we are made of molecules, 
 molecules can't have experiences, therefore we don't really have 
 experiences, we just think we do. -- Obviously paraphrased to absurdity, 
 but that's the basic idea as far as I can see. Your argument uses the same 
 logic, inverted - we have experiences, we're made of molecules, therefore 
 molecules have experiences!

 Nice, although I feel that by stopping at molecules you're denying the 
 fact that quarks and electrons obviously have experiences too, and perhaps 
 even free will (Shall I be spin-up or spin down today?)


I am more inclined to think that quarks and electrons actually *are* the 
experiences of atoms. When you use your body to use another collection of 
bodies to tell you about other bodies, what you get is something like the 
fairy tale of matter (except it's really an anti-fairy tale). As far as I 
can tell, there is no reason to assume that it is possible for anything 
other than experiences to exist. Something that is not experienced, and can 
never be experienced in any way, either directly or indirectly, is 
indistinguishable in every way from nothing at all.

As far as free will goes, my guess is that as we move further from our own 
scale of perception (I call pereptual inertial frame, because that is 
exactly what it seems to be) down to the instant of wavefunction collapse, 
or out to the open ended frame of 'fate', free will and probability are 
fused together. The dualistic sense that we have that makes our free will 
seem so personal and the world's causes so impersonal (either 
mechanistically determined or probabilistic - either way unintentional) is 
that every inertial frame acts like a lens (metaphorically) to bend the 
image of experience into this dipole of participation.

The only question to me is whether we just happen to be right smack in the 
middle of this continuum, in the most fertile band where the dipole has 
grown the most polaraized, or whether that too is a function of perceptual 
relativity (I call it eigenmorphism 
http://multisenserealism.com/thesis/6-panpsychism/eigenmorphism/)

As far as the Dennett comparison, I think that's reasonable, although I 
think that it actually makes sense my way, and is absurd Dennet's way, 
where we just think that there is a such thing as thinking??

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread LizR
On 11 October 2013 13:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 10/10/2013 1:36 PM, LizR wrote:

 Both M and W man would have a continuous feeling of identity with H man.
 I don't see that you two really have opposing viewpoints, although as usual
 I may be missing something.

 Of course if the brain can't be considered digital at any level (as
 Kermit suggests) then this is actually impossible, and the question doesn't
 arise. But personally I'm not about to embrance the idea that the universe
 is analogue all the way down - with the problems that causes (like the
 ultraviolety catastrophe) - and if it's digital at any level, this will
 work.


 Even if it's digital it can't be cloned at the quantum level.  So the
 process couldn't be implemented if copying all the way down to the quantum
 state were necessary.  But I don't think this is the case.  Tegmark, among
 others, has shown that the brain is too hot to maintain quantum
 superpositions - so we can probably assume that classical copying is
 enough, with at worst a little loss of short term memory.  It's interesting
 to consider though how accurate the copying would have to be for Bruno's
 question to make sense. Suppose the M and W man only retained a random 10%
 of the H man's memories?


That is the famous substitution level. However, even if it did require
the quantum states to be duplicated, which the universe doesn't allow, if
we think the MWI is correct we can still ask the same questions using the
duplication that creates. E.g. suppose we have Helsinki man enter a room
and then we perform a quantum measurement, and as a result we either send
the room to Moscow or Washington by conventional means. Or we open one of
two doors, say, which lets him go to room 1 or room 2, and beforehand we
ask him what are the chances you will end up in room 1? He says 50%, I
imagine, but we know he ends up in both.

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Re: WSJ Article On Why Computers Make Lame Supermarket Cashiers

2013-10-10 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 9 October 2013 05:25, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001424052702303492504579115310362925246.html


 A lot of what I am always talking about is in there...computers don't
 understand produce because they have no aesthetic sensibility. A mechanical
 description of a function is not the same thing as participating in an
 experience.

This is effectively a test for consciousness: if the entity can
perform the type of task you postulate requires aesthetic sensibility,
it must have aesthetic sensibility.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 10 October 2013 12:25, chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com wrote:
 Hi Bruno

 I don't see why. There is a chance of 1/2 to feel oneself in M, and of
 1/2 to feel oneself in W, but the probability is 1 (assuming comp, the
 protocol, etc.) to find oneself alive.

 This begs the question. And the probability of finding oneself alive is 1 in
 both your view and mine.

 P(W v M) = P(W) + P(M) as W and M are disjoint incompatible (first
 person) events.

 That they are disjoint is fine. And they are incompatible only insofar as no
 person, Bruno-Helsinki, Bruno-Washington or Bruno-Moscow, in the experiment
 will experience both simultaneously. But Bruno-Helsinki will experience each
 outcome.

 Whats missing here is a discussion about what conditions are required in
 order to induce a feeling of subjective uncertainty in Bruno-Helsinki. I
 think what is required is some ignorance over the details of the situation,
 but there are none. Bruno-Helsinki knows all there is to know about the
 situation that is relevant.

 He knows that in his future there will be two 'copies' of him; one in
 Moscow, one in Washington. By 'yes doctor' he knows that both these 'copies'
 are related to him in a manner that preserves identity in exactly the same
 way. There will be no sense in which Bruno-Washington is more Bruno-Helsinki
 than Bruno-Moscow. That is the essence of 'yes doctor'. So, at the point in
 time when Bruno-Helsinki is asked what he expects to see, there are no other
 relevant facts. Consequently there is no room for subjective uncertainty.

 It would therefore be absurd of Bruno-Helsinki to assign a probability of
 50% to either outcome. It would be like saying only one of the future
 Bruno's shares a relationship of identity with him. This is why I say your
 analysis violates the yes doctor axiom.

 This can be contrasted with a response from either of the copies when asked
 the same question. If asked before opening their eyes, both Bruno-Washington
 and Bruno-Moscow are ignorant of their location. Ofcourse, apart from the
 fact that asking the question at this point is far too late for
 Bruno-Helsinki, this is not a relevent fact for him. Because he has no doubt
 that an identity maintaining version of him will be in each location.

 I have to admit, what with you being a professor and all that, I did begin
 to feel like I was going mad. Luckily, the other day I found a paper by
 Hillary Greaves Understanding Deutcsh's Probability in a Deterministic
 Multiverse. Section 4.1 discusses subjective uncertainty in a generalized
 setting and argues for the exact same conclusions I have been reaching just
 intuitively. This doesn't make either of us right or wrong, but it gives me
 confidence to know that subjective uncertainty is not a foregone conclusion
 as I sometimes have felt it has been presented on this list. It is an
 analysis that has been peer reviewed and deemed worthy of publishing and
 warrants more than the hand waving scoffs some academics here have been
 offering.

 All the best

When I toss a coin, I expect to see either heads or tails but not
both, and in fact I see heads or tails but not both. In a multiverse,
versions of me will see both heads and tails. Should I therefore
conclude that I don't live in a multiverse?


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: The probability problem in Everettian quantum mechanics

2013-10-10 Thread Pierz
I'm puzzled by the controversy over this issue - although given that I'm 
not a physicist and my understanding comes from popular renditions of MWI 
by Deutsch and others, it may be me who's missing the point. But in my 
understanding of Deutsch's version of  MWI, the reason for Born 
probabilities lies in the fact that there is no such thing as a single 
branch. Every branch of the multiverse contains an infinity of identical, 
fungible universes. When a quantum event occurs, that set of infinite 
universes divides proportionally according to Schroedinger's equation. The 
appearance of probability arises, as in Bruno's comp, from multiplication 
of the observer in those infinite branches. Why is this problematic?

On Saturday, October 5, 2013 2:27:18 AM UTC+10, yanniru wrote:

 Foad Dizadji-Bahmani, 2013. The probability problem in Everettian quantum 
 mechanics persists. British Jour. Philosophy of Science   IN PRESS.

 ABSTRACT. Everettian quantum mechanics (EQM) results in ‘multiple, 
 emergent, branching quasi-classical realities’ (Wallace [2012]). The 
 possible outcomes of measurement as per ‘orthodox’ quantum mechanics are, 
 in EQM, all instantiated. Given this metaphysics, Everettians face the 
 ‘probability problem’—how to make sense of probabilities, and recover the 
 Born Rule. To solve the probability problem, Wallace, following Deutsch 
 ([1999]), has derived a quantum representation theorem. I argue that 
 Wallace’s solution to the probability problem is unsuccessful, as follows. 
 First, I examine one of the axioms of rationality used to derive the 
 theorem, Branching Indifference (BI). I argue that Wallace is not 
 successful in showing that BI is rational. While I think it is correct to 
 put the burden of proof on Wallace to motivate BI as an axiom of 
 rationality, it does not follow from his failing to do so that BI is not 
 rational. Thus, second, I show that there is an alternative strategy for 
 setting one’s credences in the face of branching which is rational, and 
 which violates BI. This is Branch Counting (BC). Wallace is aware of BC, 
 and has proffered various arguments against it. However, third, I argue 
 that Wallace’s arguments against BC are unpersuasive. I conclude that the 
 probability problem in EQM persists.

 http://www.foaddb.com/FDBCV.pdf
 Publications (a Ph.D. in Philosophy, London School of Economics, May 2012)
   ‘The Probability Problem in Everettian Quantum Mechanics Persists’, 
 British Journal for Philosophy of Science, forthcoming
   ‘The Aharanov Approach to Equilibrium’, Philosophy of Science, 2011 
 78(5): 976-988
   ‘Who is Afraid of Nagelian Reduction?’, Erkenntnis, 2010 73: 393-412, 
 (with R. Frigg and S. Hartmann)
   ‘Confirmation and Reduction: A Bayesian Account’, Synthese, 2011 179(2): 
 321-338, (with R. Frigg and S. Hartmann)

 His paper may be an interesting read once it comes out. Also available in:
   ‘Why I am not an Everettian’, in D. Dieks and V. Karakostas (eds): 
 Recent Progress in Philosophy of Science: Perspectives and Foundational 
 Problems, 2013, (The Third European Philosophy of Science Association 
 Proceedings), Dordrecht: Springer

 I think this list needs another discussion of the possible MWI probability 
 problem although it has been covered here and elsewhere by members of this 
 list. Previous discussions have not been personally convincing.

 Richard


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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-10 Thread meekerdb

On 10/10/2013 5:36 PM, LizR wrote:
On 11 October 2013 13:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 10/10/2013 1:36 PM, LizR wrote:

Both M and W man would have a continuous feeling of identity with H 
man. I don't
see that you two really have opposing viewpoints, although as usual I 
may be
missing something.

Of course if the brain can't be considered digital at any level (as 
Kermit
suggests) then this is actually impossible, and the question doesn't 
arise. But
personally I'm not about to embrance the idea that the universe is 
analogue all
the way down - with the problems that causes (like the ultraviolety
catastrophe) - and if it's digital at any level, this will work.


Even if it's digital it can't be cloned at the quantum level.  So the 
process
couldn't be implemented if copying all the way down to the quantum state 
were
necessary.  But I don't think this is the case.  Tegmark, among others, has 
shown
that the brain is too hot to maintain quantum superpositions - so we can 
probably
assume that classical copying is enough, with at worst a little loss of 
short term
memory.  It's interesting to consider though how accurate the copying would 
have to
be for Bruno's question to make sense. Suppose the M and W man only 
retained a
random 10% of the H man's memories?


That is the famous substitution level. However, even if it did require the quantum 
states to be duplicated, which the universe doesn't allow, if we think the MWI is 
correct we can still ask the same questions using the duplication that creates. E.g. 
suppose we have Helsinki man enter a room and then we perform a quantum measurement, and 
as a result we either send the room to Moscow or Washington by conventional means. Or we 
open one of two doors, say, which lets him go to room 1 or room 2, and beforehand we ask 
him what are the chances you will end up in room 1? He says 50%, I imagine, but we know 
he ends up in both.


According to the paper I posted, even if we flipped a coin, the outcome would constitute a 
quantum measurement.  But as for knowing there's a duplication: Only if we know MWI, an 
interpretation we made up, is true.


Brent

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Re: The probability problem in Everettian quantum mechanics

2013-10-10 Thread meekerdb
So there are infinitely many identical universes preceding a measurement.  How are these 
universes distinct from one another?   Do they divide into two infinite subsets on a 
binary measurement, or do infinitely many come into existence in order that some 
branch-counting measure produces the right proportion?  Do you not see any problems with 
assigning a measure to infinite countable subsets (are there more even numbers that square 
numbers?).


And why should we prefer this model to simply saying the Born rule derives from a Bayesian 
epistemic view of QM as argued by, for example, Chris Fuchs?


Brent

On 10/10/2013 6:11 PM, Pierz wrote:
I'm puzzled by the controversy over this issue - although given that I'm not a physicist 
and my understanding comes from popular renditions of MWI by Deutsch and others, it may 
be me who's missing the point. But in my understanding of Deutsch's version of  MWI, the 
reason for Born probabilities lies in the fact that there is no such thing as a single 
branch. Every branch of the multiverse contains an infinity of identical, fungible 
universes. When a quantum event occurs, that set of infinite universes divides 
proportionally according to Schroedinger's equation. The appearance of probability 
arises, as in Bruno's comp, from multiplication of the observer in those infinite 
branches. Why is this problematic?


On Saturday, October 5, 2013 2:27:18 AM UTC+10, yanniru wrote:

Foad Dizadji-Bahmani, 2013. The probability problem in Everettian quantum 
mechanics
persists. British Jour. Philosophy of Science   IN PRESS.

ABSTRACT. Everettian quantum mechanics (EQM) results in ‘multiple, emergent,
branching quasi-classical realities’ (Wallace [2012]). The possible 
outcomes of
measurement as per ‘orthodox’ quantum mechanics are, in EQM, all 
instantiated. Given
this metaphysics, Everettians face the ‘probability problem’—how to make 
sense of
probabilities, and recover the Born Rule. To solve the probability problem, 
Wallace,
following Deutsch ([1999]), has derived a quantum representation theorem. I 
argue
that Wallace’s solution to the probability problem is unsuccessful, as 
follows.
First, I examine one of the axioms of rationality used to derive the 
theorem,
Branching Indifference (BI). I argue that Wallace is not successful in 
showing that
BI is rational. While I think it is correct to put the burden of proof on 
Wallace to
motivate BI as an axiom of rationality, it does not follow from his failing 
to do so
that BI is not rational. Thus, second, I show that there is an alternative 
strategy
for setting one’s credences in the face of branching which is rational, and 
which
violates BI. This is Branch Counting (BC). Wallace is aware of BC, and has 
proffered
various arguments against it. However, third, I argue that Wallace’s 
arguments
against BC are unpersuasive. I conclude that the probability problem in EQM 
persists.

http://www.foaddb.com/FDBCV.pdf http://www.foaddb.com/FDBCV.pdf
Publications (a Ph.D. in Philosophy, London School of Economics, May 2012)
‘The Probability Problem in Everettian Quantum Mechanics Persists’, British 
Journal
for Philosophy of Science, forthcoming
‘The Aharanov Approach to Equilibrium’, Philosophy of Science, 2011 78(5): 
976-988
‘Who is Afraid of Nagelian Reduction?’, Erkenntnis, 2010 73: 393-412, (with 
R. Frigg
and S. Hartmann)
‘Confirmation and Reduction: A Bayesian Account’, Synthese, 2011 179(2): 
321-338,
(with R. Frigg and S. Hartmann)

His paper may be an interesting read once it comes out. Also available in:
‘Why I am not an Everettian’, in D. Dieks and V. Karakostas (eds): Recent 
Progress
in Philosophy of Science: Perspectives and Foundational Problems, 2013, 
(The Third
European Philosophy of Science Association Proceedings), Dordrecht: Springer

I think this list needs another discussion of the possible MWI probability 
problem
although it has been covered here and elsewhere by members of this list. 
Previous
discussions have not been personally convincing.

Richard

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