Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-26 Thread Jason Resch
On Wed, Apr 22, 2015 at 9:20 PM, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 On 23 April 2015 at 13:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
 So is chess real?

 No, chess is an agreed-upon set of conventions invented by the human
 mind. It didn't exist before people, and it has rules which can be changed
 without it kicking back (Castling, the pawn's two-square starting move -
 and hence en passant - were introduced to speed up the game).


 So how do you respond to this paragraph from Pigliucci:

 The obvious example that is most close to mathematics (and logic?) itself
 is provided by board games: “When a game like chess is invented a whole
 bundle of facts become demonstrable, some of which indeed are theorems that
 become provable through straightforward mathematical reasoning. As we do
 not believe in timeless Platonic realities, we do not want to say that
 chess always existed — in our view of the world, chess came into existence
 at the moment the rules were codified. This means we have to say that all
 the facts about it became not only demonstrable, but true, at that moment
 as well … Once evoked, the facts about chess are objective, in that if any
 one person can demonstrate one, anyone can. And they are independent of
 time or particular context: they will be the same facts no matter who
 considers them or when they are considered” (p. 423).

 And how does chess, once defined, differ from mathematics?


How do other universes we can't see differ from mathematics, or objects in
mathematics?

In both cases, between them: size is incomparable, time is incomparable,
distance is incomparable, communication is impossible, change is impossible
and yet we can prove things about them, simulate them, discover things
about them, think about them, etc. To any self-aware-substructure (SAS) in
that alternate universe we discover and think about/simulate, our universe
would seem just as abstract. In fact, we might simulate a that SAS living
in his world in his universe, and find him to be simulating you on our
planet in our universe. Would that SAS be correct in concluding our
universe is only abstract? We could analyze what his brain does and know
his thoughts, he might even do the same to you and your brain, and find
that you've wrongly concluded that the SAS's universe is only abstract and
not real. How rude you are! Perhaps he changes his mind and credits you
with some degree of concreteness.

Jason

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-25 Thread Alberto G. Corona
You think in terms of computing reality. That is not my point. I mean
computing the salient aspects of reality approximately by living beings.
with the purpose of avoid entropic decay.

For example, a flower must compute when the amount of light is right for
opening the petals, the insect that pollinate the flower, must compute when
to start the journey fliying to detect the flower. A  lion that attack
laterally must compute speed and direction in the line to calculate in
which direction run after the antelope. A bacteria must compute which
quantity of marker indicates that the density of the colony is enough to
synchronize the production of antigen etc.

2015-04-25 23:22 GMT+02:00 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be:


 On 25 Apr 2015, at 15:50, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

 Mathematics may be the simplest rules that produce complexity that can be
 computed.


 ... and not computed.

 Always remember that the computable is only a tiny part of the
 arithmetical reality, which is 99,999..998 % non computable.



 Reality may be the most complex game possible with the simplest rules
 possible, so that some elements can exist and live while responding to what
 happens around them.

 To live is to compute.  If the rules of the game were a bit more
 complicated than necessary, the world would not exist, because nobody would
 live and thus observe it.


 The problem is that we cannot distinguish the non computable from the
 computable empirically. A machine much more complex than ourselves can fail
 us into believing in non-computable, in a computable way, but comp offers
 indirect clues, like finding trace of the non-computable below our
 substitution level. QM confirms this, somehow.

 Life occurs at the frontier between the computable and the non
 computable.

 Bruno



 2015-04-25 3:48 GMT+02:00 Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au:

 On Fri, Apr 24, 2015 at 05:23:38PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
  On 4/24/2015 2:57 PM, John Mikes wrote:
  Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
  I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
  WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
  Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
  changing the game).
  I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
  physics, etc. etc.
 
  Random doesn't mean anything goes, it means not-deterministic.  It
  means exactly the same system may produce different outcomes.  And
  if you try to add two meters to two meters your result may well be
  4.123 or 3.999876.  So far this has not destroyed technology,
  science, or physics.  Engineers deal with it in every system.
 
  Brent
  2+2=5 for large values of 2.
 

 Exactly. Thanks Brent.

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-25 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi John,

On 24 Apr 2015, at 23:57, John Mikes wrote:


Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
changing the game).


Without changing the game? I lend you 2 dollars, and then once again,  
now you owe me 175,384 dollars.

Nice!



I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
physics, etc. etc.


Why would randomness eliminate technology? We can, and do, exploit  
randomness. Also, some things can be random and other things being not  
random. You need both to see the difference and get the concept.






My non-IndoEuropean mother tongue has no 'random, we use the
translation of the German exbeliebig (~ from what we like??) - well
I don't LIKE it, so I have no random?

Russell wrote more than a decade ago: 'yes', it seems there
should be a 'relative random' - but nothing further from him.
Nor anybody else.


The math provides a tool for measuring a form of randomness inherent  
from the number's perspective in arithmetic. A machine cannot  
distinguish randomness from a non random production of a machine much  
more complex than herself, so randomness is always based on  
theoretical, and non random deeper beliefs/assumptions.





Randomly yours (no random qgnosticism, however)



I appreciate your agnosticism has no random reason.

You asked also: what is a number?

 In science, we don't know.

But we can agree on some basic first principles and deduce from  
there.  Number can be defined axiomatically by axioms like:


0 ≠ (x + 1)
((x + 1) = (y + 1))  - x = y
x = 0 v Ey(x = y + 1)
x + 0 = x
x + (y + 1) = (x + y) + 1
x * 0 = 0
x * (y + 1) = (x * y) + x

You, and all universal machines, are free to propose another theory,  
but up to now, everyone agrees with the axioms above for the natural  
numbers (0, 1, 2, ...), and in that theory, you can already prove the  
existence of universal numbers, and of universal numbers developing  
beliefs.


But that theory is not Löbian. It might be conscious in some trivial  
sense, but it has no self-consciousness, for which you need to add the  
infinitely many axioms of induction:


If P is true for zero, and if P is such that (if p is true for x then  
P is true for x + 1) then you can derive that P is true for all x.


This makes the entity as much conscious than you and me, but with so  
less prejudices than us, the humans, that you see the theological  
first principle that such machine can't avoid when looking inward.


More on this in a reply to Brent.

Bruno



John Mikes

On Thu, Apr 23, 2015 at 8:02 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
On 23 Apr 2015, at 08:37, meekerdb wrote:
2+2=1 in mod 3 arithmetic.  If you change the game you change what  
can be proven.  You can't keep the old version and assume its  
proofs apply to the new game.


But you haven't changed the game. 2+2=4, still, in normal  
arithmetic, and unless you can change THAT you are still in the same  
game. (All you've done is to discover that there's more to the  
game than you originally thought.)


I'm a little disappointed. Although I'm of the opinion that maths  
isn't made up (based on its unreasonable effectiveness in the  
physical sciences) I still expected a slightly more sophisticated  
level of argument. If that's the type of argument that supposedly  
shows maths is made up, it doesn't look like physicists need fear  
that the mathematical rug they've been relying on for the last 300  
years will be pulled out from beneath them anytime soon.



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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Apr 2015, at 15:50, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

Mathematics may be the simplest rules that produce complexity that  
can be computed.


... and not computed.

Always remember that the computable is only a tiny part of the  
arithmetical reality, which is 99,999..998 % non computable.




Reality may be the most complex game possible with the simplest  
rules possible, so that some elements can exist and live while  
responding to what happens around them.


To live is to compute.  If the rules of the game were a bit more  
complicated than necessary, the world would not exist, because  
nobody would live and thus observe it.


The problem is that we cannot distinguish the non computable from the  
computable empirically. A machine much more complex than ourselves can  
fail us into believing in non-computable, in a computable way, but  
comp offers indirect clues, like finding trace of the non-computable  
below our substitution level. QM confirms this, somehow.


Life occurs at the frontier between the computable and the non  
computable.


Bruno




2015-04-25 3:48 GMT+02:00 Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au:
On Fri, Apr 24, 2015 at 05:23:38PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 4/24/2015 2:57 PM, John Mikes wrote:
 Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
 I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
 WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
 Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
 changing the game).
 I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
 physics, etc. etc.

 Random doesn't mean anything goes, it means not-deterministic.  It
 means exactly the same system may produce different outcomes.  And
 if you try to add two meters to two meters your result may well be
 4.123 or 3.999876.  So far this has not destroyed technology,
 science, or physics.  Engineers deal with it in every system.

 Brent
 2+2=5 for large values of 2.


Exactly. Thanks Brent.

--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-25 Thread Alberto G. Corona
Mathematics may be the simplest rules that produce complexity that can be
computed. Reality may be the most complex game possible with the simplest
rules possible, so that some elements can exist and live while responding
to what happens around them.

To live is to compute.  If the rules of the game were a bit more
complicated than necessary, the world would not exist, because nobody would
live and thus observe it.

2015-04-25 3:48 GMT+02:00 Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au:

 On Fri, Apr 24, 2015 at 05:23:38PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
  On 4/24/2015 2:57 PM, John Mikes wrote:
  Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
  I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
  WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
  Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
  changing the game).
  I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
  physics, etc. etc.
 
  Random doesn't mean anything goes, it means not-deterministic.  It
  means exactly the same system may produce different outcomes.  And
  if you try to add two meters to two meters your result may well be
  4.123 or 3.999876.  So far this has not destroyed technology,
  science, or physics.  Engineers deal with it in every system.
 
  Brent
  2+2=5 for large values of 2.
 

 Exactly. Thanks Brent.

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-24 Thread meekerdb

On 4/24/2015 2:57 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
changing the game).
I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
physics, etc. etc.


Random doesn't mean anything goes, it means not-deterministic.  It means exactly the 
same system may produce different outcomes.  And if you try to add two meters to two 
meters your result may well be 4.123 or 3.999876.  So far this has not destroyed 
technology, science, or physics.  Engineers deal with it in every system.


Brent
2+2=5 for large values of 2.

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-24 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Apr 24, 2015 at 05:23:38PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 4/24/2015 2:57 PM, John Mikes wrote:
 Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
 I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
 WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
 Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
 changing the game).
 I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
 physics, etc. etc.
 
 Random doesn't mean anything goes, it means not-deterministic.  It
 means exactly the same system may produce different outcomes.  And
 if you try to add two meters to two meters your result may well be
 4.123 or 3.999876.  So far this has not destroyed technology,
 science, or physics.  Engineers deal with it in every system.
 
 Brent
 2+2=5 for large values of 2.
 

Exactly. Thanks Brent.

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-24 Thread John Mikes
Liz and Friends of Nearer Geography:
I wrote so many times and nobody reflected so far.
WHY is 2 + 2 = 4 if there is a VALID concept like RANDOM?
Why not  2 + 2 =  -175,834? or even '1'?  (Without
changing the game).
I deny random, it would eliminate all our technology, science,
physics, etc. etc.
My non-IndoEuropean mother tongue has no 'random, we use the
translation of the German exbeliebig (~ from what we like??) - well
I don't LIKE it, so I have no random?

Russell wrote more than a decade ago: 'yes', it seems there
should be a 'relative random' - but nothing further from him.
Nor anybody else.

Randomly yours (no random qgnosticism, however)
John Mikes

On Thu, Apr 23, 2015 at 8:02 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 Apr 2015, at 08:37, meekerdb wrote:

 2+2=1 in mod 3 arithmetic.  If you change the game you change what can be
 proven.  You can't keep the old version and assume its proofs apply to the
 new game.

 But you haven't changed the game. 2+2=4, still, in normal arithmetic, and
 unless you can change THAT you are still in the same game. (All you've
 done is to discover that there's more to the game than you originally
 thought.)

 I'm a little disappointed. Although I'm of the opinion that maths isn't
 made up (based on its unreasonable effectiveness in the physical sciences)
 I still expected a slightly more sophisticated level of argument. If that's
 the type of argument that supposedly shows maths is made up, it doesn't
 look like physicists need fear that the mathematical rug they've been
 relying on for the last 300 years will be pulled out from beneath them
 anytime soon.

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-23 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Apr 2015, at 03:46, LizR wrote:


On 23 April 2015 at 13:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:
I can't see how his categorisation works.  Existence is generally  
considered to be a property of kicking back - of something  
existing independently of us, and not conforming to whatever we'd  
like it to be. For example. a planet is generally considered to  
exist - we can observer it (or land things on it) and discover  
unexpected results - Mars is not covered in H.G.Wells' Martian  
civilisation or Ray Bradbury's crystal cities, no matter how much  
we might want it to be. God (in the conventional sense of supreme  
being who created the universe) is sometimes considered not to  
exist because it's a concept that gets modified to account for new  
scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God  
created the Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be  
entirely flooded, for example.


Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can  
exist (kick back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet  
not have existed prior to being thought of by human minds. It seems  
hard to reconcile these properties. Something thought up that  
describes something that exists could reasonably be called an  
accurate scientific theory; something thought up that describes  
something that doesn't exist could reasonably be called fictional  
(or a failed scientific theory). I can see no reason why a fiction  
should have rigid properties. Conversely, if the subject of some  
theory kicks back, it's reasonable to consider it a (possibly)  
accurate theory describing something that should be considered (at  
least provisionally) real.

So is chess real?

No, chess is an agreed-upon set of conventions invented by the human  
mind.


Oh I agree with what you say above, but here you fell in a  
trap here. Chess is a finite game, so it exists, at least in the  
theory of the finite games, which is itself embedded in arithmetic.  
not only chess exists like prime number, but it can be decomposed  
cannonically into Nim-like simpler game, and they obeys laws which can  
kick back, especially if you play with someone knowing those laws!






It didn't exist before people,


Well, it existed before, but it was not yet discovered by humans in  
some history. In UD*, even the chess players exist out of time.   
They are, roughly speaking, the number i such that the phi_i plays  
chess.  That includes deep blues and Gasparov. Chess exists in  
arithmetic, as long with the (roughly) 10^120 games of chess, and even  
those non stopping (and thus recurring) where the local standard laws  
of stopping the play does not apply.
They exist in abstract form, but also in relatively concrete form,  
like in the i such that phi_i emulates the Milky-Way at a very low  
subst.  level. That emulation can go through the emulation of a chess  
board de luxe, in a rare wood with a special perfume.




and it has rules which can be changed without it kicking back  
(Castling, the pawn's two-square starting move - and hence en  
passant - were introduced to speed up the game).


Well, we can have a problem with the identity of chess, but that's the  
same with humans, animals and plants, and that makes them not not  
existing (in some modal sense) in arithmetic, once we assume  
computationalism, of course.


Bruno






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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-23 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Apr 2015, at 08:37, meekerdb wrote:


On 4/22/2015 10:41 PM, LizR wrote:

On 23 April 2015 at 16:31, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 4/22/2015 9:25 PM, LizR wrote:

On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:
Both the records and the mathematical objects are human  
constructions which are brought into existence by exercises of  
human will; neither has any transcendental existence. Both are  
static, not in the sense of existing outside of time, but in the  
weak sense that, once they come to exist, they don’t change” (pp.  
445-446)


The question they need to answer is why these things don't change.  
Humans can change other things they make up - as already  
mentioned, the rules of chess are one example.
They can change things.  Robinson arithmetic is a change of  
Peano's.  But we give it a different name instead of saying we've  
changed arithmetic.  It's just as if we'd kept the old version of  
chess around and given a different name to the new version.  It's a  
nominal distinction whether it's changed or it's a new thing.


As far as I know, we keep the old version. Surely the new one is an  
addition? Or are you saying these changes could be made any which  
way, that there is no kicking back? That 2+2 can equal 5, as  
O'Brien claimed? That seems kind of unlikely, to be honest.


2+2=1 in mod 3 arithmetic.  If you change the game you change what  
can be proven.  You can't keep the old version and assume its proofs  
apply to the new game.



OK, but 2+2 is not equal to 1 in arithmetic. It is equal to 1 in  
modular arithmetic, which is a way to assert that the rest of the  
division by 3 of 2 + 2 is equal to 1 in arithmetic. Modular arithmetic  
makes sense because we know already that 2+2= 4 in arithmetic. The  
very existence of the many modular arithmetic is a consequence of  
arithmetical laws. It confirms 2=2=4, without throwing any doubt on it.


Bruno







Brent

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-23 Thread meekerdb

On 4/22/2015 10:41 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 April 2015 at 16:31, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 4/22/2015 9:25 PM, LizR wrote:

On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:

Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions 
which
are brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has any
transcendental existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing
outside of time, but in the weak sense that, once they come to exist, 
they
don’t change” (pp. 445-446)


The question they need to answer is /why/ these things don't change. Humans 
can
change other things they make up - as already mentioned, the rules of chess 
are one
example.

They can change things.  Robinson arithmetic is a change of Peano's.  But 
we give it
a different name instead of saying we've changed arithmetic.  It's just as 
if we'd
kept the old version of chess around and given a different name to the new version. 
It's a nominal distinction whether it's changed or it's a new thing.


As far as I know, we keep the old version. Surely the new one is an addition? Or are you 
saying these changes could be made any which way, that there is no kicking back? That 
2+2 can equal 5, as O'Brien claimed? That seems kind of unlikely, to be honest.


2+2=1 in mod 3 arithmetic.  If you change the game you change what can be proven.  You 
can't keep the old version and assume its proofs apply to the new game.


Brent

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-23 Thread LizR

 On 23 Apr 2015, at 08:37, meekerdb wrote:

 2+2=1 in mod 3 arithmetic.  If you change the game you change what can be
 proven.  You can't keep the old version and assume its proofs apply to the
 new game.

 But you haven't changed the game. 2+2=4, still, in normal arithmetic, and
unless you can change THAT you are still in the same game. (All you've
done is to discover that there's more to the game than you originally
thought.)

I'm a little disappointed. Although I'm of the opinion that maths isn't
made up (based on its unreasonable effectiveness in the physical sciences)
I still expected a slightly more sophisticated level of argument. If that's
the type of argument that supposedly shows maths is made up, it doesn't
look like physicists need fear that the mathematical rug they've been
relying on for the last 300 years will be pulled out from beneath them
anytime soon.

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread meekerdb

On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:
I can't see how his categorisation works. Existence is generally considered to be a 
property of kicking back - of something existing independently of us, and not 
conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For example. a planet is generally considered 
to exist - we can observer it (or land things on it) and discover unexpected results - 
Mars is /not/ covered in H.G.Wells' Martian civilisation or Ray Bradbury's crystal 
cities, no matter how much we might want it to be. God (in the conventional sense of 
supreme being who created the universe) is sometimes considered not to exist because 
it's a concept that gets modified to account for new scientific discoveries - few 
Christians nowadays consider that God created the Earth 6000 years ago, or directly 
caused it to be entirely flooded, for example.


Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can exist (kick back - 
or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have existed prior to being thought of 
by human minds. It seems hard to reconcile these properties. Something thought up that 
describes something that exists could reasonably be called an accurate scientific 
theory; something thought up that describes something that doesn't exist could 
reasonably be called fictional (or a failed scientific theory). I can see no reason why 
a fiction should have rigid properties. Conversely, if the subject of some theory kicks 
back, it's reasonable to consider it a (possibly) accurate theory describing something 
that should be considered (at least provisionally) real.


So is chess real?

Brent

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread LizR
On 23 April 2015 at 13:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:

 I can't see how his categorisation works.  Existence is generally
 considered to be a property of kicking back - of something existing
 independently of us, and not conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For
 example. a planet is generally considered to exist - we can observer it (or
 land things on it) and discover unexpected results - Mars is *not*
 covered in H.G.Wells' Martian civilisation or Ray Bradbury's crystal
 cities, no matter how much we might want it to be. God (in the conventional
 sense of supreme being who created the universe) is sometimes considered
 not to exist because it's a concept that gets modified to account for new
 scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God created
 the Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be entirely flooded, for
 example.

  Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can
 exist (kick back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have
 existed prior to being thought of by human minds. It seems hard to
 reconcile these properties. Something thought up that describes something
 that exists could reasonably be called an accurate scientific theory;
 something thought up that describes something that doesn't exist could
 reasonably be called fictional (or a failed scientific theory). I can see
 no reason why a fiction should have rigid properties. Conversely, if the
 subject of some theory kicks back, it's reasonable to consider it a
 (possibly) accurate theory describing something that should be considered
 (at least provisionally) real.

 So is chess real?


No, chess is an agreed-upon set of conventions invented by the human mind.
It didn't exist before people, and it has rules which can be changed
without it kicking back (Castling, the pawn's two-square starting move -
and hence en passant - were introduced to speed up the game).

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread PGC


On Thursday, April 23, 2015 at 3:24:22 AM UTC+2, Brent wrote:

  On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:
  
 I can't see how his categorisation works.  Existence is generally 
 considered to be a property of kicking back - of something existing 
 independently of us, and not conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For 
 example. a planet is generally considered to exist - we can observer it (or 
 land things on it) and discover unexpected results - Mars is *not* 
 covered in H.G.Wells' Martian civilisation or Ray Bradbury's crystal 
 cities, no matter how much we might want it to be. God (in the conventional 
 sense of supreme being who created the universe) is sometimes considered 
 not to exist because it's a concept that gets modified to account for new 
 scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God created 
 the Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be entirely flooded, for 
 example. 

  Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can 
 exist (kick back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have 
 existed prior to being thought of by human minds. It seems hard to 
 reconcile these properties. Something thought up that describes something 
 that exists could reasonably be called an accurate scientific theory; 
 something thought up that describes something that doesn't exist could 
 reasonably be called fictional (or a failed scientific theory). I can see 
 no reason why a fiction should have rigid properties. Conversely, if the 
 subject of some theory kicks back, it's reasonable to consider it a 
 (possibly) accurate theory describing something that should be considered 
 (at least provisionally) real.
   

 So is chess real?


If we want to be that fuzzy, assuming something can have rigid, verifiable 
objective properties but not before humans can think of it, then the 
answer is yes, chess exists, but it's a different game from 3 days ago 
when Anand beat Wesley So with algorithm that started with Knight to B8 on 
the 10th move of a Spanish.

As stated in the article, there's always the risk of confusing some set of 
rules with the implications of that set of rules. But this itself kicks 
back too with the claimed discovery of rigid/prior existence or not 
categories as well. Consequently, this classification was not true a moment 
before the authors thought of it, becoming true, when the authors did their 
magic. This would be consistent by giving single universe/time/human 
primacy, but also has the ring to it, of people trying to sell us the 
world revolves around the human and time but not before we thought of it. 
How convenient, one may smile plausibly.

Quote:
Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions 
which are brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has 
any transcendental existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing 
outside of time, but in the weak sense that, once they come to exist, they 
don’t change” (pp. 445-446).

That's a statement of faith/dogma with pretensions of un-transcendental 
truth, which is as unclear and esoteric as how they appear to start their 
reasoning. 

We can't have it both ways unless we really, really will it... then it 
shall be evoked humans! Ok, I guess they're running out of time and I 
should by the book of un-transcendental truth to see the light that isn't 
lit before they thought of it? 

Uhm, no sale here at the moment, although it seems a nice try, even if 
perhaps a bit naive on theological subtleties, fictions and truth. PGC

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread meekerdb

On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:



On Thursday, April 23, 2015 at 3:24:22 AM UTC+2, Brent wrote:

On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:

I can't see how his categorisation works. Existence is generally considered 
to be a
property of kicking back - of something existing independently of us, and 
not
conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For example. a planet is 
generally
considered to exist - we can observer it (or land things on it) and discover
unexpected results - Mars is /not/ covered in H.G.Wells' Martian 
civilisation or
Ray Bradbury's crystal cities, no matter how much we might want it to be. 
God (in
the conventional sense of supreme being who created the universe) is 
sometimes
considered not to exist because it's a concept that gets modified to 
account for
new scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God 
created the
Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be entirely flooded, for 
example.

Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can exist 
(kick
back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have existed prior 
to
being thought of by human minds. It seems hard to reconcile these 
properties.
Something thought up that describes something that exists could reasonably 
be
called an accurate scientific theory; something thought up that describes 
something
that doesn't exist could reasonably be called fictional (or a failed 
scientific
theory). I can see no reason why a fiction should have rigid properties.
Conversely, if the subject of some theory kicks back, it's reasonable to 
consider
it a (possibly) accurate theory describing something that should be 
considered (at
least provisionally) real.


So is chess real?


If we want to be that fuzzy, assuming something can have rigid, verifiable objective 
properties but not before humans can think of it, then the answer is yes, chess 
exists, but it's a different game from 3 days ago when Anand beat Wesley So with 
algorithm that started with Knight to B8 on the 10th move of a Spanish.


As stated in the article, there's always the risk of confusing some set of rules with 
the implications of that set of rules. But this itself kicks back too with the claimed 
discovery of rigid/prior existence or not categories as well. Consequently, this 
classification was not true a moment before the authors thought of it, becoming true, 
when the authors did their magic. This would be consistent by giving single 
universe/time/human primacy, but also has the ring to it, of people trying to sell us 
the world revolves around the human and time but not before we thought of it. How 
convenient, one may smile plausibly.


Quote:
Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions which are brought 
into existence by exercises of human will; neither has any transcendental existence. 
Both are static, not in the sense of existing outside of time, but in the weak sense 
that, once they come to exist, they don’t change” (pp. 445-446).


That's a statement of faith/dogma with pretensions of un-transcendental truth, which is 
as unclear and esoteric as how they appear to start their reasoning.


Why isn't is just their hypothetical explanation of how to look at the world - like 
Bruno's comp hypothesis?  You seem to be holding them to some standard of axiomatic 
reasoning when their thesis is to explain the origin of axiomatic reasoning.


Brent



We can't have it both ways unless we really, really will it... then it shall be evoked 
humans! Ok, I guess they're running out of time and I should by the book of 
un-transcendental truth to see the light that isn't lit before they thought of it?


Uhm, no sale here at the moment, although it seems a nice try, even if perhaps a bit 
naive on theological subtleties, fictions and truth. PGC


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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread LizR
On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:

 Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions
 which are brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has
 any transcendental existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing
 outside of time, but in the weak sense that, once they come to exist, they
 don’t change” (pp. 445-446)

 The question they need to answer is *why* these things don't change.
Humans can change other things they make up - as already mentioned, the
rules of chess are one example.

I haven't read the whole thing, so perhaps they do have an explanation for
why made up things can't be changed? If so, I'd be interested to know what
it is (not having time, sadly, to read every paper published on this list).

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

  Is mathematics neither invented nor discovered, but evoked?

https://scientiasalon.wordpress.com/2015/04/21/smolin-on-mathematics/


The review by Pigliucci is fascinating. It almost makes me want to buy 
Smolin's book -- he seems to be saying much of what I have always 
thought about the nature and origin of mathematics.


Bruce

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread LizR
I can't see how his categorisation works.  Existence is generally
considered to be a property of kicking back - of something existing
independently of us, and not conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For
example. a planet is generally considered to exist - we can observer it (or
land things on it) and discover unexpected results - Mars is *not* covered
in H.G.Wells' Martian civilisation or Ray Bradbury's crystal cities, no
matter how much we might want it to be. God (in the conventional sense of
supreme being who created the universe) is sometimes considered not to
exist because it's a concept that gets modified to account for new
scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God created
the Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be entirely flooded, for
example.

Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can exist
(kick back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have existed
prior to being thought of by human minds. It seems hard to reconcile these
properties. Something thought up that describes something that exists could
reasonably be called an accurate scientific theory; something thought up
that describes something that doesn't exist could reasonably be called
fictional (or a failed scientific theory). I can see no reason why a
fiction should have rigid properties. Conversely, if the subject of some
theory kicks back, it's reasonable to consider it a (possibly) accurate
theory describing something that should be considered (at least
provisionally) real.

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 23 April 2015 at 13:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 


So is chess real?

No, chess is an agreed-upon set of conventions invented by the human 
mind. It didn't exist before people, and it has rules which can be 
changed without it kicking back (Castling, the pawn's two-square 
starting move - and hence en passant - were introduced to speed up the 
game).


So how do you respond to this paragraph from Pigliucci:

The obvious example that is most close to mathematics (and logic?) 
itself is provided by board games: “When a game like chess is invented a 
whole bundle of facts become demonstrable, some of which indeed are 
theorems that become provable through straightforward mathematical 
reasoning. As we do not believe in timeless Platonic realities, we do 
not want to say that chess always existed — in our view of the world, 
chess came into existence at the moment the rules were codified. This 
means we have to say that all the facts about it became not only 
demonstrable, but true, at that moment as well … Once evoked, the facts 
about chess are objective, in that if any one person can demonstrate 
one, anyone can. And they are independent of time or particular context: 
they will be the same facts no matter who considers them or when they 
are considered” (p. 423).


And how does chess, once defined, differ from mathematics?

Bruce

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread meekerdb

On 4/22/2015 6:46 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 April 2015 at 13:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 4/22/2015 6:06 PM, LizR wrote:

I can't see how his categorisation works.  Existence is generally 
considered to be
a property of kicking back - of something existing independently of us, 
and not
conforming to whatever we'd like it to be. For example. a planet is 
generally
considered to exist - we can observer it (or land things on it) and discover
unexpected results - Mars is /not/ covered in H.G.Wells' Martian 
civilisation or
Ray Bradbury's crystal cities, no matter how much we might want it to be. 
God (in
the conventional sense of supreme being who created the universe) is 
sometimes
considered not to exist because it's a concept that gets modified to 
account for
new scientific discoveries - few Christians nowadays consider that God 
created the
Earth 6000 years ago, or directly caused it to be entirely flooded, for 
example.

Roberto Unger and Lee Smolin are trying to claim that something can exist 
(kick
back - or as they put it, have rigid properties) yet not have existed prior 
to
being thought of by human minds. It seems hard to reconcile these 
properties.
Something thought up that describes something that exists could reasonably 
be
called an accurate scientific theory; something thought up that describes 
something
that doesn't exist could reasonably be called fictional (or a failed 
scientific
theory). I can see no reason why a fiction should have rigid properties.
Conversely, if the subject of some theory kicks back, it's reasonable to 
consider
it a (possibly) accurate theory describing something that should be 
considered (at
least provisionally) real.

So is chess real?


No, chess is an agreed-upon set of conventions invented by the human mind. It didn't 
exist before people, and it has rules which can be changed without it kicking back 
(Castling, the pawn's two-square starting move - and hence en passant - were introduced 
to speed up the game).




But isn't the fact that we call it chess with a change also a convention.  If we'd called 
the game with castling etc, Chass then chass would be a new rigid invention...like 
arithmetic.  I can imagine some Homo Neanderthalis saying,Look over there.  There's Thog, 
Glug, and Drod.  His companion says,That's sorta the same as me, you, and Crak.  Let's 
call it 'three'.  And so they invented arithmetic.  Arithmetic depends on seeing 
similarities to group individuals and abstract away all the count.


Brent


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RE: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread colin hales
Really interesting!

Good to find someone that concurs with a one-at-a-time universe. I think this 
will emerge as being right, in the end. 

Thanks.
Colin

-Original Message-
From: meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
Sent: ‎23/‎04/‎2015 5:36 AM
To: EveryThing everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Origin of mathematics

Is mathematics neither invented nor discovered, but evoked?

https://scientiasalon.wordpress.com/2015/04/21/smolin-on-mathematics/

Brent

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread meekerdb

On 4/22/2015 9:25 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:

Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions 
which are
brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has any 
transcendental
existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing outside of time, 
but in
the weak sense that, once they come to exist, they don’t change” (pp. 
445-446)


The question they need to answer is /why/ these things don't change. Humans can change 
other things they make up - as already mentioned, the rules of chess are one example.


They can change things.  Robinson arithmetic is a change of Peano's.  But we give it a 
different name instead of saying we've changed arithmetic.  It's just as if we'd kept the 
old version of chess around and given a different name to the new version.  It's a nominal 
distinction whether it's changed or it's a new thing.


Brent



I haven't read the whole thing, so perhaps they do have an explanation for why made up 
things can't be changed? If so, I'd be interested to know what it is (not having time, 
sadly, to read every paper published on this list).


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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:

Both the records and the mathematical objects are human
constructions which are brought into existence by exercises of
human will; neither has any transcendental existence. Both are
static, not in the sense of existing outside of time, but in the
weak sense that, once they come to exist, they don’t change” (pp.
445-446)


The question they need to answer is /why/ these things don't change. 
Humans can change other things they make up - as already mentioned, the 
rules of chess are one example.


I haven't read the whole thing, so perhaps they do have an explanation 
for why made up things can't be changed? If so, I'd be interested to 
know what it is (not having time, sadly, to read every paper published 
on this list).


This is part of the excerpt I posted before:

Once evoked, the facts about chess are objective, in that if any one 
person can demonstrate one, anyone can. And they are independent of time 
or particular context: they will be the same facts no matter who 
considers them or when they are considered.


I think this answers your question. If you change the rules of chess, 
you create a new and different game -- you do not change things that 
were true of the old game.


Bruce

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Thu, Apr 23, 2015 at 6:16 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:



 Quote:
 Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions
 which are brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has
 any transcendental existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing
 outside of time, but in the weak sense that, once they come to exist, they
 don’t change” (pp. 445-446).

 That's a statement of faith/dogma with pretensions of un-transcendental
 truth, which is as unclear and esoteric as how they appear to start their
 reasoning.


 Why isn't is just their hypothetical explanation of how to look at the
 world - like Bruno's comp hypothesis?


Everybody can choose their own theology. How/to what degree this bears on
truth is much more subtle.

They seem to confuse this because they first state false dichotomy between
Platonism and some humanism/nominalism implies their system.

Then they reason and conclude, see above, that some humanist magic will is
responsible for discoveries. So they do side with a flavor of nominalism
and, in strong fashion, state abstract truth of their faith. This strongly,
they leave realm of hypothesis + reasoning and do what seems to be closer
to advertising, with self-reinforcing messages. Looks circular without much
consequence, although I haven't read it and rely on the interpretation and
quotes.

How that's different from Bruno's hypothesis? He doesn't state in any paper
or post (to my knowledge) that comp is true.


   You seem to be holding them to some standard of axiomatic reasoning when
 their thesis is to explain the origin of axiomatic reasoning.


With fuzzy elements, humans, prior existence etc. which is not wrong, but
this doesn't seem to clarify anything, nor do they advance with anything
novel from their proposal of the stated flawed dichotomy. PGC

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Re: Origin of mathematics

2015-04-22 Thread LizR
On 23 April 2015 at 16:31, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/22/2015 9:25 PM, LizR wrote:

 On 23 April 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/22/2015 7:38 PM, PGC wrote:

 Both the records and the mathematical objects are human constructions
 which are brought into existence by exercises of human will; neither has
 any transcendental existence. Both are static, not in the sense of existing
 outside of time, but in the weak sense that, once they come to exist, they
 don’t change” (pp. 445-446)

  The question they need to answer is *why* these things don't change.
 Humans can change other things they make up - as already mentioned, the
 rules of chess are one example.

  They can change things.  Robinson arithmetic is a change of Peano's.  But
 we give it a different name instead of saying we've changed arithmetic.
 It's just as if we'd kept the old version of chess around and given a
 different name to the new version.  It's a nominal distinction whether it's
 changed or it's a new thing.

 As far as I know, we keep the old version. Surely the new one is an
addition? Or are you saying these changes could be made any which way, that
there is no kicking back? That 2+2 can equal 5, as O'Brien claimed? That
seems kind of unlikely, to be honest.

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