Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Oct 2011, at 20:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/8/2011 5:47 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 07 Oct 2011, at 19:45, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/7/2011 6:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Indeed with comp, or with other everything type of theories, the  
problem is that such fantasy worlds might be too much probable,  
contradicting the observations.


I don't see how probability theory is going to help even if you  
can prove some canonical measure applies.   Suppose our world  
turns out to be extremely improbable?  It still would not  
invalidate the theory.


Probabilities like that use some absolute self-sampling assumption,  
which does not make much sense. Comp, like QM, only provide  
conditional or relative probabilities. Comp can be refuted by  
predicting anything different for a repeatable experience.
If comp predict that an electron weight one ton, then it will be  
refuted. Comp+the classical theory of knowledge, predicts the whole  
physics, so it is hard to ever imagine a more easy to refute theory.


Depends on what you mean by the whole of physics.


Good question. When physics is inferred from observation, there is no  
conceptual mean to distinguish physics from geography, except for a  
fuzzy level of generality.
But UDA explains where the observation and observable comes from, and  
physics can be defined as what is invariant for all the observer. If  
the material hypostases did collapse, it would have mean that physics,  
as such would be empty, and that all observable truth would be  
geographical. But the logic of self-reference explains why such logics  
does not collapse, and why there are physical laws, indeed the quantum  
laws. Of course, this leads to many open problems, but that is the  
interest of mechanism (believed by most scientist).






What has been thought to be the whole of physics has been  
refuted.  Newtonian physics was refuted by special and general  
relativity.  General relativity is inconsistent with quantum  
mechanics.


OK, I just answered this above.



So which whole of physics does Comp predict?  Is it inconsistent  
with the physics of computer games?


It is has to be consistent with the physics of all computer games  
played at once, as it is the case in arithmetic, and persons observe  
a sort of average.



What does Comp predict about dark matter?  Will it be a new  
particle?  A modified gravity?


This will remain the job of the usual physicist. Just that if we  
assume mechanism, we have to understand its consequence.
To use mechanism to solve the dark matter problem is like to use  
string theory to prepare tea.







We have already the logic of measure one.


I don't understand what measure there is on logics.


There is no measure on logics, but on sigma_1 sentences proofs.
There are logics of the measure *one*, and I have explained what it is  
(mainly the logic of the intensional variant Bp  p ( Dt).
The explanation is quasi literal if you grasp UDA, and is arithmetical  
(by AUDA).







If physics was newtonian or boolean, comp would be refuted already.


How would it be inconsistent with a Newtonian world?


With a newtonian world the logic of observable proposition is boolean.  
It is already proved that the logic of the observable proposition  
invariant for all UMs and LUMs cannot be boolean (and is already  
proved to be a variant of von Neumann quantum logic).


Bruno





Brent



Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Oct 2011, at 20:51, benjayk wrote:




Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 08 Oct 2011, at 13:14, benjayk wrote:




Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 04 Oct 2011, at 21:59, benjayk wrote:




Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 03 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:




I don't see why.
Concrete objects can be helpful to grasp elementary ideas about
numbers for *some* people, but they might be embarrassing for
others.

Well, we don't need concrete *physical* objects, necessarily, but
concrete
mental objects, for example measurement. What do numbers mean
without any
concrete object, or measurement? What does 1+1=2 mean if there
nothing to
measure or count about the object in question?


It means that when you add the successor of zero with itself you  
get

the successor of one, or the successor of the successor of zero.

But that does this *mean*? These are just a bunch of words. You
could as
well write
It means that when you colmüd the pööl of ämpod with itself you
get
the pööl of trübda, or the pööl of the pööl of ämpod..


Exactly! That is the point of axiomatization.
Hilbert said this to explain what his axiomatic geometry means: you
can replace the terms 'points', 'lines', and 'planes', by  the term
'elephant', 'table' and 'glass of bear'.
Now, doing this would not be pedagogical, and we use the most  
commonly

used symbols. That is + for colmüd, s for pööl, and the symbol
0 for your ämpod. We already have some axioms for logic and
equality, and all you need consists in agreeing or not with the
following principles:

0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

The intended meaning being 0 is not a successor of any number, etc.
You can say the ämpod is different from all pööls. No problem,  
but

it is obviously quite unpedagogical, I think.

You don't get the point. Of course I can agree with these principles
concerning countable and measureable things.


But then, unless you see a flaw in the reasoning, you should know that  
at the obtic level, we don't need more, nor can we use more than the  
countable collection of finite things, once we assume mechanism.





The point is that successor and 0 become meaningless, or just mere  
symbols,

when removed from that context.


What context are you talking about. The theory is interpretation  
independent. The interpretations themselves are part of model theory.  
For using the axiom you need only the inference rules.




I don't agree with these axioms removed from any context, as without  
it,
they are meaningless. I don't necessarily disagree with them,  
either, I just

treat them as mere symbols then.


They are much more than that. There are symbols + finitist rule of  
manipulation. The difference is as big as the difference between what  
you can feel looking at the string z_n+1 = (z_n)^2 + c and what you  
can feel looking at a rendering of what it describes, like this:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n7JLHxBm0eY




Of course we can still use them in a meta-sense by using .. = 2 as a
representation for, say a nose, and ... = 3 as a representation  
for a rose
and succesor= +1 as a representation for smelling, and then 2+1=3  
means
that a nose smells a rose. But then we could just as well use any  
other

symbol, like ß or more meaningfully :o) o-.


I am not sure that you are serious. There are intented meaning, and  
logics is a science which study the departure between intended meaning  
and a mathematical study of meaning. Logic studied both the  
syntactical transformation (a bit like neurophysiologist study the  
neuronal firings) and the space of the possible interpretations.  
Interesting things happen for the machine doing that on themselves.








Bruno Marchal wrote:


Personally, I might prefer to use the combinators. But we have to
agree on some principle about some initial universal system to see  
how
they reflect UDA, in such a way that we can explain the quanta and  
the

qualia, with the comp assumption in the background, and in the theory
itself.

Yes, you can use any universal system, which is going to be just as
meaningless as numbers.


That is like saying that a brain, which only manipulate finite  
meaningless information pattern (assuming comp) is useless.

Are you just telling me that, like Craig, you assume non-comp?



Let's take a programming language. When the code says while(i5)  
then i++;
print Nose smells rose end then this make sense for the user as  
he can
read nose smells rose. But in an abstract context, nose smells  
rose has
no particular meaning and the while loop is just a loop, which also  
has no

particular meaning (though it has a particular function).


This is false, it has a meaning (mainly that if the condition occur it  
has to print some string). What you do with that information is more  
complex, as it needs to study your brain, body, context (indeed). But  
you illustrate that you agree that xhile (i5) ... has a meaning.  
Obviously, it has nothing to do with rose and 

Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:





I'm not saying that arithmetic isn't an internally consistent logic
with unexpected depths and qualities, I'm just saying it can't turn
blue or taste like broccoli.


Assuming non-comp.

There is no assumption needed for that. It is a category error to say
arithmetics turns into a taste. It is also a category error to say  
that

arithmetic has an internal view.


If by arithmetic you mean some theory/machine like PA, you *are* using  
non comp.
If by arithmetic you mean arithmetical truth then I can see some sense  
in which it is a category error.





It makes as much sense to say that a
concept has an internal view.
nternal view just applies to the only thing
that can have/is a view, namely consciousness.


It applies to person. It might be a category error to say that  
consciousness has consciousness. Consciousness is not a person, even  
cosmic consciousness.





This is not a belief, this is
just the obvious reality right now.


Obvious for you. But is it obvious that PA is conscious: I don't think  
so. Nevertheless, in case it is conscious, it is obvious from her  
point of view. It is that obviousness we are looking a theory for.




Can you find any number(s) flying around
that has any claim to an internal view right now?


Yes. Although the number per se, like programs and brains, will refer  
only to the relations that the 1-person associated with that number  
can have. A person is not a brain, not a body, not a number, not  
anything 3-describable. But we can bet on brains, numbers, etc. as  
tool for being able to manifest ourself relatively to each other.





The only thing that you
can find is consciousness being conscious of itself (even an person  
that

consciousness belongs to is absent, the person is just an object in
consciousness).


Here you present a theory like if it was a fact. If that was obvious,  
we would not even discuss it. Consciousness, despite being an obvious  
fact for conscious person, is a concept. As you say, concept does not  
think.





You abstract so much that you miss the obvious.


In interdisciplinary researches it is better to avoid the term  
obvious.
I do agree that consciousness is obvious from the first person point  
of view of a conscious person, but do you agree that a silicon machine  
can emulate a conscious person, indeed yourself (little ego)? Do you  
agree that this is not obvious for everybody (Craig believes it is  
false).
I don't know the answer to that question, but I can show that if that  
is the case (that you can survive without any conscious change with  
such a silicon prosthesis), then we have to come back to the  
Platonician theologies, and naturalism and weak materialism, despite  
being a fertile simplifying assumption (already done by nature) is  
wrong.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 October 2011 14:37, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Can you find any number(s) flying around
 that has any claim to an internal view right now?

 Yes. Although the number per se, like programs and brains, will refer only
 to the relations that the 1-person associated with that number can have. A
 person is not a brain, not a body, not a number, not anything 3-describable.
 But we can bet on brains, numbers, etc. as tool for being able to manifest
 ourself relatively to each other.

Very succinctly put.  However, speaking as a (grateful!) survivor of
many conversations on this topic, on this list, over the years, I
would venture to suggest that confusion about, or even ignorance of,
the very distinctions you draw in the above remark are responsible for
many of the more commonly encountered (perhaps simplistic)
misunderstandings of your ideas.  I know that you have (indefatigably)
attempted to explain, in various places, the distinctively different
roles of the various concepts you mention above - i.e. programs,
numbers, persons, brains, bodies and what have you.  However, it still
seems to be the case that various correspondents are quite confused
(and indeed differently confused) about what motivates this particular
approach in the first place, why and how the entities and roles in
question then appear in the theory, and finally precisely how they are
related and matched up in terms of the theory. Of course, I realise
that these topics can all be studied in much more detail via your
published papers, but in terms of this list, how might one best set
out these motivations and distinctions for pedagogical purposes?

David



 On 08 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:



 I'm not saying that arithmetic isn't an internally consistent logic
 with unexpected depths and qualities, I'm just saying it can't turn
 blue or taste like broccoli.

 Assuming non-comp.

 There is no assumption needed for that. It is a category error to say
 arithmetics turns into a taste. It is also a category error to say that
 arithmetic has an internal view.

 If by arithmetic you mean some theory/machine like PA, you *are* using non
 comp.
 If by arithmetic you mean arithmetical truth then I can see some sense in
 which it is a category error.



 It makes as much sense to say that a
 concept has an internal view.
 nternal view just applies to the only thing
 that can have/is a view, namely consciousness.

 It applies to person. It might be a category error to say that consciousness
 has consciousness. Consciousness is not a person, even cosmic consciousness.



 This is not a belief, this is
 just the obvious reality right now.

 Obvious for you. But is it obvious that PA is conscious: I don't think so.
 Nevertheless, in case it is conscious, it is obvious from her point of view.
 It is that obviousness we are looking a theory for.


 Can you find any number(s) flying around
 that has any claim to an internal view right now?

 Yes. Although the number per se, like programs and brains, will refer only
 to the relations that the 1-person associated with that number can have. A
 person is not a brain, not a body, not a number, not anything 3-describable.
 But we can bet on brains, numbers, etc. as tool for being able to manifest
 ourself relatively to each other.



 The only thing that you
 can find is consciousness being conscious of itself (even an person that
 consciousness belongs to is absent, the person is just an object in
 consciousness).

 Here you present a theory like if it was a fact. If that was obvious, we
 would not even discuss it. Consciousness, despite being an obvious fact for
 conscious person, is a concept. As you say, concept does not think.



 You abstract so much that you miss the obvious.

 In interdisciplinary researches it is better to avoid the term obvious.
 I do agree that consciousness is obvious from the first person point of view
 of a conscious person, but do you agree that a silicon machine can emulate a
 conscious person, indeed yourself (little ego)? Do you agree that this is
 not obvious for everybody (Craig believes it is false).
 I don't know the answer to that question, but I can show that if that is the
 case (that you can survive without any conscious change with such a silicon
 prosthesis), then we have to come back to the Platonician theologies, and
 naturalism and weak materialism, despite being a fertile simplifying
 assumption (already done by nature) is wrong.

 Bruno


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread John Mikes
In the Bruno - Brent exchange I enjoyed Bruno''s remarks Usually I agree
with BrentM.
Probability (in my terms) means a distribution within infinite bounds, no
specifics for probable/non probable.
The 'fantasy-world' of physics is a time-related explanatory Procrustean bed
for those partly (maybe at all?)
understood phenomena that transpired (BY OBSERVATION - Bruno) till
'yesterday into our knowledge-base
(forget about oomniscient Comp).
It works almost well in circumstances we realize today. (Consider some
mishaps that occur,,,)
Whole Physics IMO is the conventional science we carry as of yesterday. It
includes the ancient 'facts' (measurements?)
ad their refutations by fantasy-land theories (Q-chapters) as well as the
modifications by math (another fantasy-land IMO.)
Granted: we travel in space, predict genetics, screw-up economics, have
societal predictions and ruin our environment
very successfully. We don't understand anything. Comp does (if it exists)
but it is not understandable to us. Logic? which
one? the Zarathustrian octimality(8)? or the equation of opposites? (which
is btw. a true outcome of the infinite everything).
I THINK (not sure!) self-reference is anchoring ourselves into our
ignorance.
Unfortunately we have no better means to contemplate with than our material
infested brain-function, a poor excuse for
mentality. Even the R.Rosen version infinite complexity worldview (with a
base of unknowable everything) is restricted to
our models made up of human-mind approved topics and features, processes and
happenings - an array of conventional
thinking. (I have no proof that the 'model-content' indeed represents
anything from the infinite complexity and its relations.)
BTW there is no proof at all. Only in a restricted limitational view.
Evidence: ditto.
So what do we have? a thinking agnosticism - acknowleged ignorance, but we
use it very skillfully.

Sorry to blunderize the holly Grail of science thinking.

John Mikes



On Sun, Oct 9, 2011 at 6:05 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 08 Oct 2011, at 20:15, meekerdb wrote:

 On 10/8/2011 5:47 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 07 Oct 2011, at 19:45, meekerdb wrote:

 On 10/7/2011 6:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 Indeed with comp, or with other everything type of theories, the
 problem is that such fantasy worlds might be too much probable,
 contradicting the observations.


 I don't see how probability theory is going to help even if you can
 prove some canonical measure applies.   Suppose our world turns out to be
 extremely improbable?  It still would not invalidate the theory.


 Probabilities like that use some absolute self-sampling assumption, which
 does not make much sense. Comp, like QM, only provide conditional or
 relative probabilities. Comp can be refuted by predicting anything different
 for a repeatable experience.
 If comp predict that an electron weight one ton, then it will be refuted.
 Comp+the classical theory of knowledge, predicts the whole physics, so it is
 hard to ever imagine a more easy to refute theory.


 Depends on what you mean by the whole of physics.


 Good question. When physics is inferred from observation, there is no
 conceptual mean to distinguish physics from geography, except for a fuzzy
 level of generality.
 But UDA explains where the observation and observable comes from, and
 physics can be defined as what is invariant for all the observer. If the
 material hypostases did collapse, it would have mean that physics, as such
 would be empty, and that all observable truth would be geographical. But the
 logic of self-reference explains why such logics does not collapse, and why
 there are physical laws, indeed the quantum laws. Of course, this leads to
 many open problems, but that is the interest of mechanism (believed by most
 scientist).





 What has been thought to be the whole of physics has been refuted.
  Newtonian physics was refuted by special and general relativity.  General
 relativity is inconsistent with quantum mechanics.


 OK, I just answered this above.



 So which whole of physics does Comp predict?  Is it inconsistent with the
 physics of computer games?


 It is has to be consistent with the physics of all computer games played
 at once, as it is the case in arithmetic, and persons observe a sort of
 average.


 What does Comp predict about dark matter?  Will it be a new particle?  A
 modified gravity?


 This will remain the job of the usual physicist. Just that if we assume
 mechanism, we have to understand its consequence.
 To use mechanism to solve the dark matter problem is like to use string
 theory to prepare tea.




 We have already the logic of measure one.


 I don't understand what measure there is on logics.


 There is no measure on logics, but on sigma_1 sentences proofs.
 There are logics of the measure *one*, and I have explained what it is
 (mainly the logic of the intensional variant Bp  p ( Dt).
 The explanation is quasi literal if you grasp UDA, and 

Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread benjayk


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 
 On 08 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:
 


 I'm not saying that arithmetic isn't an internally consistent logic
 with unexpected depths and qualities, I'm just saying it can't turn
 blue or taste like broccoli.

 Assuming non-comp.
 There is no assumption needed for that. It is a category error to say
 arithmetics turns into a taste. It is also a category error to say  
 that
 arithmetic has an internal view.
 
 If by arithmetic you mean some theory/machine like PA, you *are* using  
 non comp.
The point is that we don't need any assumptions for that. It is just an
observation. There is only the internal view viewing into itself, and it
belongs to no one. It is just not possible to find an owner, simply because
only objects can be owned. It is a category error to say subjectivity
(consciousness) can be owned, just like, for example, numbers can't be
owned.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 If by arithmetic you mean arithmetical truth then I can see some sense  
 in which it is a category error.
I think what you call arithmetical truth has nothing to do with arithmetical
truth in particular and thus doesn't deserve its name. You can use
arithmetic to point towards truth, but you can use anything for it. Thus it
doesn't really make sense to call it arithmetical truth, except if you only
mean the part that is provably true within arithmetic. As soon as you use
Gödel, you go beyond arithmetic, making the label arithmetical truth close
to meaningless.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 It makes as much sense to say that a
 concept has an internal view.
 nternal view just applies to the only thing
 that can have/is a view, namely consciousness.
 
 It applies to person.
No. There is no person to find that has consciousness. The is just a belief
that is not validated by experience. The experience of a person having
consciousness is just the experience of consciousness trying to make itself
an object that belongs to someone (because consciousness first starts to
learn to be conscious in terms of objects, as this is seemingly requiring
less introspective ability). Actually consciousness just is (aware of
itself) and objects appear in that, including the object the person as
relative subject.
Treating the relative subject, the person, as having the absolute subject
(consciousness) is the illusion of ego, that creates samsara, suffering. The
absolute subject can't suffer, as it has nothing to suffer from, nor any
notion of difference that is required to suffer (suffering vs suffering
ceasing).


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  It might be a category error to say that  
 consciousness has consciousness. Consciousness is not a person, even  
 cosmic consciousness.
Right, consciousness doesn't really have consciousness, this is just a
manner of speaking that I borrowed from a person having consciousness, I
think the former is more accurate than the latter. Actually consciousness
just is (and through that it knows itself).


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 This is not a belief, this is
 just the obvious reality right now.
 
 Obvious for you.
Obvious for anyone (as there is only one that can be consciousness of
obviousness, namely consciousness). Right now the only absolute thing you
find in your experience is consciousnes, without any owner. Only the
intellect makes it possible for anything to have consciousness. In
actuality there is no such thing to find.
It can be non-obvious to a person, not to consciousness. Consciousness can't
even conceive of an owner of itself, actually it can't directly conceive of
anything. Conceiving of something appears in it (and as it).


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  But is it obvious that PA is conscious: I don't think  
 so. Nevertheless, in case it is conscious, it is obvious from her  
 point of view. It is that obviousness we are looking a theory for.
PA is just an object within consciousness. It can't have a point of view.
Nothing has a point of view in the sense you mean it. Points of views are
just relative manifestations inside/of consciousness.
PA could have a point of view in a relative sense, if you choose to
indentify with PA and then defend its position. But one could as well say
that a triangle has a point of view, if I identify with it and defend its
position (imagining it has any).


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 Can you find any number(s) flying around
 that has any claim to an internal view right now?
 
 Yes. Although the number per se, like programs and brains, will refer  
 only to the relations that the 1-person associated with that number  
 can have.
Or, to put it another way, the 1-person will not feel to be a number at all;
and thus will not be a number(s), for all intents and purposes,
contradicting the very premise (maybe not logically, but it doesn't really
make sense to bet on being a machine if the conclusion says that for all
intents and purposes you are not a machine at all).
Anyway, I doubt that you can find any number having a claim to an internal
view other than in 

Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-09 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 9, 12:09 am, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Oct 9, 2011 at 8:06 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
  On Oct 8, 12:12 am, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:
  On Sat, Oct 8, 2011 at 1:05 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com 
  wrote:
   Of course all the parts of the car determine how it will move! You can
   predict exactly what the car will do if you know how it works and you
   have the inputs.

   What you are talking about is either tautological and obvious or
   delusional. if I send you the owner's manual of my car, you can tell
   me where I'm going to drive it tomorrow? So what are you talking
   about? That if you observe a car turning, you can tell which way it's
   turning or something?

  If you send me the plans of your car and the inputs - which way you
  intend to steer and so on -

  *which
                     way
                                 you
                                           intend
                                                         to steer*

  WHT?

  Did you think you were just going to slip that in and I wouldn't
  notice?

  So cool, as long as I give you the schematics of my car and tell you
  where I'm going to drive to, you will be able to deduce where I'm
  going to drive to? Wow, that's almost better than nothing at all.
  There is no way that you are serious. You are trolling me, brother.

 Quentin responded to this.

I'm not sure what he means. If he is pointing out that we were talking
about determining where a car was going to go and not about the
intentions of the driver, then I agree with him. Your entire argument
is that there must be some physical cause within neuron which
determines what it does. I pointed out that you cannot determine where
a car is going to go based on physical observations of the car. You
then erroneously reached for a deus ex machina by suddenly
contradicting yourself to say that indeed the car's direction cannot
be determined by physical observation but in fact you would need an
anecdotal report from a subjective entity called a 'driver'.


 Apart from the philosophical issues there are two scientific issues
 you misunderstand. The first is what it means to simulate something.
 It appears you think that the simulation must include the whole
 universe and not just the thing being simulated.

No, it's just that I understand that simulation is a subjective
proposition. There is no such thing as an objective simulation. That
would require that one thing be replaced by another which is identical
in every way, which is impossible or else it would be the same thing.
I have a much more realistic understanding of simulation, that it in
fact depends upon which criteria can be perceived by what audience and
the degree to which those thresholds of perceptual substitution can be
exceeded. Since we have no idea whatsoever how deeply inseparable the
physical underpinnings of the psyche are, there is absolutely no
reason to arbitrarily assume a particular substitution level.

 The second is the
 belief you seem to have that microscopic events can happen without an
 empirically observable cause. You cite scientific articles discussing
 spontaneous neural activity and you think that that is what they are
 talking about: that the transmembrane voltage in a neuron can just
 change because the subject wills it.

It's not my belief, it is the scientific consensus. If your beliefs
that subjective will does not change electromagnetic current in the
nervous system have any validity, then all you have to do is give me a
link or two of studies which support this. Since you cannot, I will
assume that underneath it all, you understand that you are factually
incorrect but are incapable of admitting it, even to yourself. How
else do you explain voluntary action being different from involuntary
actions? Do you think that when you take control of your breathing
manually that nothing has changed in your nervous system? That we
suddenly have a hallucination that we are controlling our own
breathing?

Your accusations are empty. Your view explains nothing.

Craig

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Re: Bruno List continued

2011-10-09 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Oct 8, 7:21 pm, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2011/10/8 Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com









  On Oct 8, 12:12 am, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:
   On Sat, Oct 8, 2011 at 1:05 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com
  wrote:
Of course all the parts of the car determine how it will move! You can
predict exactly what the car will do if you know how it works and you
have the inputs.

What you are talking about is either tautological and obvious or
delusional. if I send you the owner's manual of my car, you can tell
me where I'm going to drive it tomorrow? So what are you talking
about? That if you observe a car turning, you can tell which way it's
turning or something?

   If you send me the plans of your car and the inputs - which way you
   intend to steer and so on -

  *which
                     way
                                 you
                                           intend
                                                         to steer*

  WHT?

  Did you think you were just going to slip that in and I wouldn't
  notice?

 You were talking about cars not about you.

 If you want a model about brain + car just say so.

I don't understand. I'm the one talking about cars. He is the one
defining the physical mechanics of a car to include the steering
intentions of a driver.

Craig

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Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread meekerdb

On 10/9/2011 3:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Depends on what you mean by the whole of physics.


Good question. When physics is inferred from observation, there is no conceptual mean to 
distinguish physics from geography, except for a fuzzy level of generality.
But UDA explains where the observation and observable comes from, and physics can be 
defined as what is invariant for all the observer. If the material hypostases did 
collapse, it would have mean that physics, as such would be empty, and that all 
observable truth would be geographical.


But it seems that everything theories and the string theory landscape and Tegmark's all of 
mathematics threaten to do exactly that - make of all of physics geographical, an accident 
of where you find yourself with the anthropic principle as the all-purpose explanation.


Brent

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Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread benjayk


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 
 On 08 Oct 2011, at 20:51, benjayk wrote:
 


 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 08 Oct 2011, at 13:14, benjayk wrote:



 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Oct 2011, at 21:59, benjayk wrote:



 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 03 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:


 I don't see why.
 Concrete objects can be helpful to grasp elementary ideas about
 numbers for *some* people, but they might be embarrassing for
 others.
 Well, we don't need concrete *physical* objects, necessarily, but
 concrete
 mental objects, for example measurement. What do numbers mean
 without any
 concrete object, or measurement? What does 1+1=2 mean if there
 nothing to
 measure or count about the object in question?

 It means that when you add the successor of zero with itself you  
 get
 the successor of one, or the successor of the successor of zero.
 But that does this *mean*? These are just a bunch of words. You
 could as
 well write
 It means that when you colmüd the pööl of ämpod with itself you
 get
 the pööl of trübda, or the pööl of the pööl of ämpod..

 Exactly! That is the point of axiomatization.
 Hilbert said this to explain what his axiomatic geometry means: you
 can replace the terms 'points', 'lines', and 'planes', by  the term
 'elephant', 'table' and 'glass of bear'.
 Now, doing this would not be pedagogical, and we use the most  
 commonly
 used symbols. That is + for colmüd, s for pööl, and the symbol
 0 for your ämpod. We already have some axioms for logic and
 equality, and all you need consists in agreeing or not with the
 following principles:

 0 ≠ s(x)
 s(x) = s(y) - x = y
 x+0 = x
 x+s(y) = s(x+y)
 x*0=0
 x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

 The intended meaning being 0 is not a successor of any number, etc.
 You can say the ämpod is different from all pööls. No problem,  
 but
 it is obviously quite unpedagogical, I think.
 You don't get the point. Of course I can agree with these principles
 concerning countable and measureable things.
 
 But then, unless you see a flaw in the reasoning, you should know that  
 at the obtic level, we don't need more, nor can we use more than the  
 countable collection of finite things, once we assume mechanism.
For the flaw in the reasoning, see my post above.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 The point is that successor and 0 become meaningless, or just mere  
 symbols,
 when removed from that context.
 
 What context are you talking about. The theory is interpretation  
 independent. The interpretations themselves are part of model theory.  
 For using the axiom you need only the inference rules.
But just rules give just rules.
The context I am talking about are particular measurements, or particular
countable things. COMP uses it outside of this context, making it
meaningless.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 I don't agree with these axioms removed from any context, as without  
 it,
 they are meaningless. I don't necessarily disagree with them,  
 either, I just
 treat them as mere symbols then.
 
 They are much more than that. There are symbols + finitist rule of  
 manipulation.
Which are just symols as well. The rules are just more then symbols with
unspecified meaning if they represent something.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  The difference is as big as the difference between what  
 you can feel looking at the string z_n+1 = (z_n)^2 + c and what you  
 can feel looking at a rendering of what it describes, like this:
 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=n7JLHxBm0eY 
This just works if we give the rules meaning in terms of particular objects,
namely pixels on the screen. In this context they aren't removed from
context, because an image of a screen with measureable distance is an
obvious context for numbers.
The equation without an geometrical context means very little to an average
human (of course to mathematician it means a lot in terms of other
mathematical things, which is no valid context for the average human).
COMP doesn't give an adequate context. If it would, you could give
particular predictions of what COMP entails in term of measureable or
countable objects.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 Of course we can still use them in a meta-sense by using .. = 2 as a
 representation for, say a nose, and ... = 3 as a representation  
 for a rose
 and succesor= +1 as a representation for smelling, and then 2+1=3  
 means
 that a nose smells a rose. But then we could just as well use any  
 other
 symbol, like ß or more meaningfully :o) o-.
 
 I am not sure that you are serious.
I am serious, I just presented it in a ;)-manner.


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  There are intented meaning, and logics is a science which study the
 departure between intended meaning and a mathematical study of meaning.
 Logic studied both the  
 syntactical transformation (a bit like neurophysiologist study the  
 neuronal firings) and the space of the possible interpretations.  
 Interesting things happen for the machine doing that on themselves.
This is a lot of talk of how meaningful it is without presenting any actual

Re: COMP is empty(?)

2011-10-09 Thread benjayk



benjayk wrote:
 
 
 Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 
 On 08 Oct 2011, at 20:51, benjayk wrote:
 


 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 08 Oct 2011, at 13:14, benjayk wrote:



 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Oct 2011, at 21:59, benjayk wrote:



 Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 03 Oct 2011, at 21:00, benjayk wrote:


 I don't see why.
 Concrete objects can be helpful to grasp elementary ideas about
 numbers for *some* people, but they might be embarrassing for
 others.
 Well, we don't need concrete *physical* objects, necessarily, but
 concrete
 mental objects, for example measurement. What do numbers mean
 without any
 concrete object, or measurement? What does 1+1=2 mean if there
 nothing to
 measure or count about the object in question?

 It means that when you add the successor of zero with itself you  
 get
 the successor of one, or the successor of the successor of zero.
 But that does this *mean*? These are just a bunch of words. You
 could as
 well write
 It means that when you colmüd the pööl of ämpod with itself you
 get
 the pööl of trübda, or the pööl of the pööl of ämpod..

 Exactly! That is the point of axiomatization.
 Hilbert said this to explain what his axiomatic geometry means: you
 can replace the terms 'points', 'lines', and 'planes', by  the term
 'elephant', 'table' and 'glass of bear'.
 Now, doing this would not be pedagogical, and we use the most  
 commonly
 used symbols. That is + for colmüd, s for pööl, and the symbol
 0 for your ämpod. We already have some axioms for logic and
 equality, and all you need consists in agreeing or not with the
 following principles:

 0 ≠ s(x)
 s(x) = s(y) - x = y
 x+0 = x
 x+s(y) = s(x+y)
 x*0=0
 x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

 The intended meaning being 0 is not a successor of any number, etc.
 You can say the ämpod is different from all pööls. No problem,  
 but
 it is obviously quite unpedagogical, I think.
 You don't get the point. Of course I can agree with these principles
 concerning countable and measureable things.
 
 But then, unless you see a flaw in the reasoning, you should know that  
 at the obtic level, we don't need more, nor can we use more than the  
 countable collection of finite things, once we assume mechanism.
 For the flaw in the reasoning, see my post above.
 
Sorry, I mean below!
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