Most believers I know have been baptised.   Most unbelievers do nothing for the Lord, much less "be baptized."   Baptism is a work of faith, as we say --  and does not need to be included in the negatively stated comment.  If you don't believe, you will not be baptized  --  it goes without saying  and so it wasn't. 
 
 
Jd
 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin Deegan <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 18:58:19 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?

If it is so ridiculous then answer this:
MK 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
According to this verse, who will be damned?
He who is NOT Baptised or He who is NOT a Believer?
Find something substantial to be critical of or find a hobby.

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
A rather ridiculous bit of logic.  If one does not believe, he will not be baptized.   Your "logic" cuts the word completely out of the mouth of Jesus.   I do not think water baptism saves anyone, by the way.   But that is what Jesus said.   You can slice and dice all you want. 
 
JD 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin Deegan <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 15:42:09 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?

He is those "Every creature" that hear the preaching.
 
As far as a proof text.
It is NOT a proof text for salvation by baptism as some declare, but a prooftext of salvation by belief.
Since the one is is damned is the UNBELIEVER not the UNBaptised. vs 16

Charles Perry Locke <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
John, thanks for responding. Jesus indeed spoke v. 16, but to whom was
Christ referring when he used "He"?

Any other TT'rs care to give thier insight to these questions? I know
this does not appear to raise any controversy, so hasn't generated much
interest, but where I am going with this may step on so many toes that it
may become controversial. Of course, maybe everyone already understood this
but me, and the Spirit was just bringing me up to speed!

The reason that I am asking is that quite late the other night I had a
stroke of insight into the meaning of v. 16 that was totally different than
I previously understood. Did this come to me through the Spirit? Well, I DO
pray often that the Spirit will give me insight into the Word of God, and
that I will see and understand it correctly. I believe that is what happened
to change my understanding of this verse.

After coming to this new understanding, I gave it the "sleep on it" test,
and it survived. upon re-reading the passage it still meant the same thing
to me the next morning.

A lot of people may disagree with me because it refutes a major
proof-text used by many. (Not that their point may not be made elsewhere,
but definitely not here in v. 16.) There is a secondary use of v 16-20 as
another prooftext that also will be refuted. This is very rich indeed.

I wanted to present this to my Christian peers on TT, to see what the
consensus is. I want to hear from as many as have the time to read and give
their understanding, then I will present it as I now understand it. If the
spirit has indeed lead me into truth it will be interesting.

Perry



>From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Reply-To: [email protected]
>To: [email protected]
>Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
>Date: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 01:31:59 -0400
>
>1. Christ
>2. Water
>& lt; BR>>-----Original Message-----
>From: Charles Perry Locke <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: [email protected]
>Sent: Sun, 19 Jun 2005 21:35:41 -0700
>Subject: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
>
>
>I have been studying Mark 16:14-20, and have two open questions for all TT
>members.
>
>1. In verse 16, who is the antecedant to the pronoun "He" that starts out
>that verse?
>2. Again, in verse 16, what type of baptism is Jesus discussing here?
>
>Thanks,
>Perry
>
>----------
>"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may
>know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6)
>http://www.InnGlory.org
>
>If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to
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----------
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