Well, late the other night I was studying mark 16:14-20. My purpose was to
contrast it with Romans 10:9-10. I wanted to make sure I understood it
correctly. I was reading it over the second or third time when, without
warning my perspective shifted, and I saw the passage entirely differently
than I did when I began reading it. I had traditionally interpreted "he" as
mankind", and "baptised" as water baptism.
Many use verse 16 as a prooftext that water baptism is necessary for
salvation, and many use it as a prooftext that when one is saved and
baptised, one recvieves the fruit of the spirit. With my new insight, those
two concepts are no longer a question. They are not disproven, either, but
these verses no longer will support them as prooftexts of those ideas.
As I read the verses, I focused on one of the main subjects of the passage.
Namely the unbelief of the 11 as expressed in v14. Can you believe that? All
that they had been through with Jesus, and some still had unbelief. Jesus
was about to entrust these men with spreading the gospel and they still had
unbelief! What if they still had not believed at pentecost?
As I read it became apparent to me that while jesus was telling them their
commission to go into the world and preach the gospel. But, in verse 16 he
continues with his admonition, by 1) telling them that they would be
baptised (by the Holy Spirit), and what their state would be IF they still
unbeleived at that time!
In verse 17 he goes on to say that those that believed would receive gifts
to be used in spreading the gospel, and this is confirmed in verse 20, which
confirms that as they went out they had these gifts.
This is easily discerned in these verses (14-20) if, as you read it, you
allow every pronoun (he, them, they) to refer to the 11 (those to whom this
whole passage applies), and allow that the baptism he speaks of is the
baptism of the Holy Spirit that occurred at pentecost.
Perry
From: Terry Clifton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Reply-To: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
Date: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 16:53:56 -0500
Charles Perry Locke wrote:
John, thanks for responding. Jesus indeed spoke v. 16, but to whom was
Christ referring when he used "He"?
=====================================================================
My opinion, Perry, without a lot of pondering, based on what I see in the
NKJV. "He" is generic for any saint, any saved person who is walking the
walk, the narrow path that results in salvation for those that endure to
the end. It is in clear contrast to the next "he" in that verse who will be
condemned. I do not know the original word used here for baptized, but I
assume it means believers baptism, immersion in water in obedience to God's
command to show publicly that you have denied self and will now follow
Christ.
Now lay it on us. What has God, the Holy Spirit shown you?
Terry
=
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may
know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6)
http://www.InnGlory.org
If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to
[EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a
friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to
[EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you
ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL
PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to
join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
