Re: [TruthTalk] Jesus of the Bible

Mon, 04 Jul 2005 07:09:46 -0700

 
Blaine:  The word "perfect" is likely the right word, otherwise, you have to admit the Mormon claim that the Bible is to be believed only insofar as it is translated correctly is true. 
Which will it be?  Last time this came up, you insisted the Bible was perfect--other TT'rs arrived at the same conclusion.  You guys can't have it both ways. If the bible is not a perfect instrument, then the BoM or a similar book revealed from heaven must be needed.
 
 
 
 
In a message dated 7/2/2005 12:20:08 P.M. Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
I have read that the word "perfect" in 1611 meant what "complete" means to
us today. Try rereading that verse with "complete" in place of "perfect" and
see if it sounds any different to you.

Do we have anyone on TT that can confirm what I have read regarding the
denotation of the word "perfect" in 1611? Languages evolve, as you all know,
and English is no excuse. Things today do not always mean what they did
almost 496 years ago.

Perry

>From: Terry Clifton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Reply-To: [email protected]
>To: [email protected]
>Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Jesus of the Bible
>Date: Sat, 02 Jul 2005 12:34:42 -0500
>
>Kevin Deegan wrote:
>
>>
>>...........
>>According to one LDS prophet: "In his Sermon on the Mount he made the
>>command to all men: "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is
>>in heaven is perfect." (Matt.5:48.)  Being perfect means to *triumph over
>>sin*.  This is a *mandate* from the Lord.  He is just and wise and kind. 
>>He would never require anything from his children which was not for their
>>benefit and which was not attainable. * Perfection therefore is an
>>achievable goal*."
>>Remember it says "BE" not future tense become perfect, how are you NOW?
>>Are you Triumphing? Are you perfect?
 

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