Re: [TruthTalk] Jesus of the Bible

Mon, 04 Jul 2005 10:33:28 -0700

In a message dated 7/4/2005 8:52:33 A.M. Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
   At the time the King James Version was translated it is possible that the
meaning of "perfect" was appropriate due to it's denotation at that time,
but has evolved to mean something slightly different today.
Blaine:  Possible, but not probable.  IMO, the word "perfect" is too much a part of the language to have changed meanings.  If it did change, please do more than speculate--show some evidence it did such. Otherwise, I have to conclude you are merely grabbing at a straw.

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