In a message dated 7/4/2005 8:52:33 A.M. Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Blaine,

   At the time the King James Version was translated it is possible that the
meaning of "perfect" was appropriate due to it's denotation at that time,
but has evolved to mean something slightly different today.

   That idea is not the same as the Bible being translated incorrectly.
Blaine:  If it did evolve, please show evidence other than your speculation.  As I indicated, it sounds like you are grabbing at a straw in the water, so to speak

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