Re: [TruthTalk] Jesus of the Bible

Mon, 04 Jul 2005 07:26:28 -0700

In a message dated 7/2/2005 12:23:55 P.M. Mountain Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
I have read that the word "perfect" in 1611 meant what "complete" means to
>us today. Try rereading that verse with "complete" in place of "perfect"
>and see if it sounds any different to you.
>
>Do we have anyone on TT that can confirm what I have read regarding the
>denotation of the word "perfect" in 1611? Languages evolve, as you all
>know, and English is no excuse. Things today do not always mean what they
>did almost 496 years ago.
>
>Perry
Blaine:  You sound like you are just looking for an out, Perry.  LOL

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