No -- I intended the four sentences with the quote marks to be taken as by my
polemic adversary asserting his faulty proof that good art exists. He has a
certain ecstatic experience. He says nothing could cause this except "good
art". The feeling exists, therefore good art must exist!

His somewhat suppressed assumption is that this experience is sui generis, it
is an "aesthetic" experience, which by definition is an art experience! Which
is to assume the very thing in question. As I wrote   that last posting, I
realized that if I were to fill this argument out I would have to cope with
the
fact that many people have a feeling as they contemplate certain creative
works, and they believe that feeling is indeed sui generis. They would say,
"What
I mean by 'good art' is anything the contemplation of which causes that
experience. That experience exists, therefor good art exists." My rebuttal to
that
argument is fodder for another email. Heeding my own advice about not writing
when I'm a bit stupid with sleepiness, I go now and internalize some of the
Platonic form of napness. See? Did I say I need a nap?

In a message dated 2/27/09 4:48:46 PM, [email protected] writes:


> In a message dated 2/27/09 3:05:17 PM, [email protected] writes:
>
>
> > I should say these are not mere devil's advocate arguments. I sincerely
> > believe these things. The very things in Johnson or Shakespeare that give
> me
> >
> > pleasure might bore or disgust the next person. "Well, you shouldn't be
> > bored! You
> > should be transported like me! And if I am transported, it can only be
> > because
> > there is good art there. Thus do I prove good art exists!"
> >
>
> In the course of denying that it is possible to say something is "good art"
> you have assumed that "good art" is not boring or disgusting,that it
> transports one, and that it gives pleasure.   Explain please.
> Kate Sullivan
>
>
>




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