Philip, If I understand you right, your proposed meaning of ha-baal is the exact opposite of the way the definite article is used on a proper noun in Biblical Hebrew. It seems you are saying that when "baal" has the definite article, it is not a name, but "the husband". In English that would be true, but in Hebrew it is the opposite. Baal can be a word or a proper name. To refer to the name, Baal, rather than the word baal, in Hebrew you put the definite article on it. So Ha-Baal means Baal the idol (unless the context might refer to a previously-mentioned husband). Baal without the definite article is usually the word baal, meaning husband, etc.
I had asked a similar question on B-Hebrew in 2006 regarding place names, but the same applies to personal names. Here's Yigal Levin's answer: > Dear Steve, > > The general rule is that proper names don't need the article. However, > proper names that are understood as descriptive may receive the > article, since it's the article that makes them into proper names in > the first place. > For example, "Mizpeh" means "lookout". For a "lookout" to be a proper name, > it would have to be "The Lookout". This might eventually develop into > just "Lookout", if the place became so well-known that everyone would > know which > lookout was meant. Of course, one problem that we have is that we > don't always know what the authors assumed that their readers would know. > > S. Noah Lee wrote an article on "The Use of the Definite Article in > the Developement of some Biblical Toponyms" in Vetus Testamentum 53 > (2002), 334-349. I happen to have a photocopy. If you wish, contact me > off-list and > I'll email you a copy. > > Yigal I have the pdf of the above article. It is well-written. If anyone wants a copy, email me off-list, and I'll send you a copy. Sincerely yours, Steve Miller Detroit www.voiceInWilderness.info Though an army should encamp against me, my heart won't fear from anxiety. Though a war rise up against me to rent, in this thing I will be confident. (Ps 27:3) > > On Aug 3, 2012, at 12:53 AM, Philip Hardy wrote: > > Hello. My Name is Philip A. Hardy. I have noticed that in most instance in the > King James Bible where The word BAAL is or any english word(s) that derived > from the same Hebrew word that BAAL derived from, namely בעל, the > original Hebrew almost always has "הבעל". This I believe is best conveyed or > rendered in English as "the owner", "the husband", "the master", or "the > lord". Now where is found היהוה only once and possibly could be be translated > "he the life", conversely is found הבעל thirty eight times. Now if הבעל can be > translated "the lord" and the name "יהוה" is not transliterated as is "בעל" > but > is (mis)translated as "The Lord" and Certain persons choose not to "proclaim > the name" or "Publish the name" as the word says we should, then could it > be that This is a fulfillment of the prophecy found in JER 23:26-27 "Jer 23:26 > How long shall [this] be in the heart of the prophets that prophesy lies? yea, > [they are] prophets of the deceit of their own heart;Jer 23:27 Which think to > cause my people to forget my name by their dreams which they tell every > man to his neighbor, as their fathers have forgotten my name for Baal. > wherein BAAL is really הבעל "The Lord" or "...as their fathers have forgotten > my name for "The Lord"." Any insight, conveyed musings, or constructive > criticisms would be welcome. Good Day Philip Hardy _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
