Hi all.
My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.
What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word
"Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.)
In commenting on the verse, Augustineseems to have followed the Latin Vulgate,
and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices ofthe men--neither
excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men because of the vices.
It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part of the
meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?
The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."
Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?
Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
Please reply.
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