??????????
the glosses given by HALOT are "completeness, outermost part, end"
with reference to Psalm 139:22 it has: "completeness of hatred, extreme
form of hatred," citing NRSV "perfect hatred"
The Vulgate [Psam 138:22] reads "Perfecto" which seems to me a valid
translation however we may make of Augustine's comments.
Kokkee Ng
Bible College of Malaysia
Petaling Jaya, Malaysia
On 11/3/2012 3:09 PM, Pere Porta wrote:
Welcome, Mike! Where are you posting from?
Well, I don't know what Augustine says. Now, I think the Vulgate has
several mistakes...
As regards our word "takliyth" (as you're writing it) (*), this is an
uncommon noun pattern built up on several root types, mainly
-methinks- lamed-heh and ayin-yod.
In modern Hebrew we find Tagliyt, /discovering/ (not in the Bible),
from verb galah (1S 4:21), /uncover/, and tashtiyt, /base, foundation/
(not in the Bible), from verb (la)shyt, /put, set/ (Jb 30:1).
Maybe this helps.
(*) Are you aware of the transcription guidelines of Hebrew letters we
use in this forum?
If not, ask the moderators, please.
Again, welcome!
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
2012/11/3 Mike Burke <[email protected]
<mailto:[email protected]>>
Hi all.
My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.
What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of
the word "Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.)
In commenting on the verse, Augustineseems to have followed the
Latin Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the
vices ofthe men--neither excusing the vices because of the men, or
hating the men because of the vices.
It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is
"perfection" part of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?
The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."
Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?
Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
Please reply.
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Pere Porta
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