On 11/3/2012 12:40 AM, Mike Burke wrote: > Hi all. > > My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew. > > What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word > "Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.) > > In commenting on the verse, Augustineseems to have followed the Latin > Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices ofthe > men--neither excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men > because of the vices. > > It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part > of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text? > > The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them." > > Was Augustine entirely off the mark here? > > Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
Greetings, Mike. The meaning of the Hebrew is much closer to "end, completion" than what we colloquially mean in modern English by "perfect." The Latin perfectum, originally the perfect passive participial form of perficio (complete), bears this sense in Latin as well (beware of reading the modern English sense of "perfect" back into it). The LXX translates with the adverbial TELEION, bearing the same sense. -- N.E. Barry Hofstetter Semper melius Latine sonat The American Academy http://www.theamericanacademy.net The North American Reformed Seminary http://www.tnars.net Bible Translation Magazine http://www.bible-translation.net http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
