Welcome, Mike! Where are you posting from? Well, I don't know what Augustine says. Now, I think the Vulgate has several mistakes... As regards our word "takliyth" (as you're writing it) (*), this is an uncommon noun pattern built up on several root types, mainly -methinks- lamed-heh and ayin-yod. In modern Hebrew we find Tagliyt, *discovering* (not in the Bible), from verb galah (1S 4:21), *uncover*, and tashtiyt, *base, foundation* (not in the Bible), from verb (la)shyt, *put, set* (Jb 30:1).
Maybe this helps. (*) Are you aware of the transcription guidelines of Hebrew letters we use in this forum? If not, ask the moderators, please. Again, welcome! Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain) 2012/11/3 Mike Burke <[email protected]> > Hi all. > > My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew. > > What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word > "Takliyth" > (used in Psalm 139:22.) > > In commenting on the verse, Augustine seems to have followed the Latin > Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices of the > men--neither > excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men because of the > vices. > > It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part > of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text? > > The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them." > > Was Augustine entirely off the mark here? > > Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong? > > Please reply. > > > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > > -- Pere Porta
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