On 2/28/06, Michael Dinowitz <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > A foreign company following a Trade Embargo in a foreign country is > > not inherently against US law. > > It is if the company in question is doing business with the US. If the > company is not doing business with the US, then we can't apply our laws. But > if they are, they must comply or face penalties. Unless we decide to ignore > it.
You are making the assumption that there are US laws which apply to this situation, and that they have been broken. That is yet to be decided, which is my point. Will definitely make it interesting if they do apply, but so far you've only presented a journalist's viewpoint and not a court's. -Cameron ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Message: http://www.houseoffusion.com/lists.cfm/link=i:5:198347 Archives: http://www.houseoffusion.com/cf_lists/threads.cfm/5 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/lists.cfm/link=s:5 Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/cf_lists/unsubscribe.cfm?user=11502.10531.5 Donations & Support: http://www.houseoffusion.com/tiny.cfm/54
