> > But the domain *HAS* been paid <snip> > Someone has paid the registry, but no one has paid the registrar.
The reseller paid the registrar. > As the > contracts specifically contemplate that someone must pay the registrar prior > to registration (or provide a reasonable basis for believing that payment > will be made), the only logical assumption at this point is that the domain > name hasn't been paid. I'm thinking of a bounced cheque, a chargeback, or similiar situation in which case the domain was registered with a good faith belief that payment had been received, but the client later reversed the payment. > Think of the other side of the "didn't pay, have to seize it" > argument...registrant has paid, but reseller doesn't pay registrar or > registrar charges back registry - who gets to seize what now? The registrar or the registry seizes the domain, and the end user sues the reseller. Registry <--> Registrar <--> Reseller/RSP <--> End User Each party has obligations to pass payment to the left, and a domain to the right. If the chain is broken at some point, the "buck" stops at the last link which met it's obligations. Again, I realize that to some extent OpenSRS' hands are tied. However, I still believe that the concept of a "reseller" needs to be addressed -- In order to "resell" something, I must first own it, otherwise I'd be selling something which I don't own... -- `Be that word our sign of parting, bird or fiend!' I shrieked upstarting `Get thee back into the tempest and the Night's Plutonian shore! Leave no black plume as a token of that lie thy soul hath spoken! Leave my loneliness unbroken! - quit the bust above my door! Take thy beak from out my heart, and take tha form from off my door! Quoth the raven, `Nevermore.'
