2014-02-13 12:29 GMT+01:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>:

>
> On 13 Feb 2014, at 12:07, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
>
>
>
>
> 2014-02-13 11:52 GMT+01:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>:
>
>>
>> On 13 Feb 2014, at 09:44, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> 2014-02-13 9:32 GMT+01:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>:
>>
>>>
>>> On 12 Feb 2014, at 21:47, LizR wrote:
>>>
>>>  On 13 February 2014 09:18, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>
>>>> On 12 Feb 2014, at 18:58, meekerdb wrote:
>>>>
>>>>  That doesn't follow.  If there are disjoint worlds, as contemplated in
>>>> some versions of cosmology, they may have different physics.
>>>>
>>>> Nice, comp predicts that this is impossible, although I can agree this
>>>> is a matter of semantics, as I define a physical laws to be true for all
>>>> universal machines, so disjoint worlds will have only different 
>>>> geographies.
>>>>
>>>
>>> So you're saying that only those worlds with observers in exist,
>>> according to comp?
>>>
>>>
>>> Not completely, as you will still have all the computations
>>> approximating all possible geographical reality, including those without
>>> observers, and in that sense, those "realities" exist, but they might not
>>> be first person plural sharable, and if you could explore one, they can
>>> violate our physics below our substitution level (which witnesses the
>>> infinitely many computations, something that one computation can only
>>> approximate). Your question can depend if a quantum universal dovetailer
>>> win the "a measure battle", so that the computations going through you
>>> states are asspciated to some precise subdovetailing, for example.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> So the physics they observe will necessarily be such that it allows them
>>> to exist? (In other words, the "Strong Anthropic Principle" ?)
>>>
>>>
>>> Is that not tautological?
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>  If so, how do you account for us being able to observe an early
>>> universe in which there were apparently no observers? Or do we as obsverers
>>> create it (somehow) ?
>>>
>>>
>>>  We select them. See above.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> You seem to be making your claim a tautology by saying whatever your
>>>> theory produces is physics, even if it's not any physics we know of.  That
>>>> makes it impossible to test.
>>>>
>>>> Why, the physics we get is non trivial. It is as much testable than
>>>> evolution. It explains where the laws of physics come from, and much more.
>>>> It is extremely testable, given that it gives the laws, and it is enough to
>>>> find one natural phenomenon contradicting Z1* or X1* to refute comp (+
>>>> Theaetetus). But this needs more on "AUDA", so let us not anticipate
>>>> everything too much quickly. You jump from step 3 to step 8, and then to
>>>> AUDA. Well, it is interesting, but like Liz said, we have to do the dinner
>>>> and that kind of things of life, if we want to continue the discussion in
>>>> decent condition.
>>>>
>>>> I must admit I got that impression - thath the answer was something
>>> like "comp predicts whatever physics we've got!"
>>>
>>>
>>> This is false. A priori comp predicts white noise and white rabbits. But
>>> thanks to Gödel, we know that self-reference put constraints on what we can
>>> observe ([]p & <>t), so comp(+Theaetetus)  is not refuted yet, and is the
>>> only theory explaining where matter and consciousness comes from. Comp
>>> predicts one precise physics, in a way which indeed does not depend at all
>>> from what we observe in nature (we assume *only* comp!), and so we can
>>> compare the comp-physics with nature physics, and test comp.
>>>
>>
>> I don't understand how you would disprove comp like that... because
>> whatever you could measure about reality could just be "geographical" and
>> so comp is always in accordance with whatever measure... if not, could you
>> precisely point on a specific thing that would invalidate comp ?
>>
>>
>> If all the "hypostases" (points of view) modalities were collapsing into
>> CPL, then comp would predict that, indeed, there are no physical laws, and
>> everything would be geographical. This would predict that we can "travel"
>> in the universe/multiverse, and observe anything logically consistent.
>>
>> This would made Smullyan correct when he says, in "Forever Undecided"
>>  (page 47):
>>
>> "The physical sciences are interested in the state of affairs that holds
>> for the actual world, whereas pure mathematics and logic study all possible
>> state of affairs".
>>
>> Now, we could criticize this already from observation. Indeed it is those
>> observations which led us to believe that there are physical laws, and laws
>> means that something is true everywhere in our universe (or should means
>> that, if that set is not empty). Indeed we believe that F=ma, or F= KmM/r^2
>> are laws, that is are true, not only everywhere, but even in all branch of
>> the universal wave.
>>
>
>
> But it can't be true everywhere with comp,
>
>
>
>
> It must be true at the physical level, about the "real" (by comp) physical
> reality.
>
>
> because, I can write a virtual world where this does not hold, and as it
> is a virtual world, an infinity of computations approximate it at any level
> in the UD deployement (like our reality).... hence, that "virtual" world is
> as real as ours by UDA (and not so virtual)...
>
>
> It is like a dream, or a simulation implemented on the real physics.
>

Why, it is as real IMHO, because it is also implemented by an infinity of
computations... why would our reality be more real ? Peter Jones realness
ingredient ?


>
>
>
>
> hence F=ma cannot be universaly true if comp is true.
>
>
> So if you extract "F= KmM/r^2" from comp, and you refute it ostensibly (by
> flying) then you can infer that either comp is false, or you are dreaming
> (or you are in a simulation, done, not by the UD, but implemented on the
> real physics which is not done by the UD but supervenes on the whole UD in
> a non computable).
>

I think you can't conclude anything, because as I point out, any measure
you made is geographical under comp hence no measure can invalidate it.


>
> You are right that we don't test just comp, but comp + theaetetus + we are
> at the base level of physics (not dreaming or simulated at a higher level).
> OK?
>

Ok... but it is no more comp. The "we are at the base level of physics" is
the same thing as primitive matter, Peter Jones realness ingredient.

Quentin



>  (I think se have discussed this before, but it is OK to come back, as
> this is not so easy).
>
> In all case it is better than physics, which only compresses information,
> without justifying its existence and the modality of the compression, still
> less justifying a non communicable part of it (the physical sensation) or
> linking sensation and bodies in ad hoc ways without taking the FPI into
> account. With comp we don't have so much choice. That we might be dreaming
> is also true for physics (and that's why I often forget to mention the
> higher level dream, when I say that comp is refutable---that is universally
> true).
>
> Up to now, Everett-QM confirms comp, and Theaetetus *and* that we are not
> dreaming or in a simulation.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Quentin
>
>
>>
>> But comp justifies this: the modalities of provability and observation
>> does not collapse, and so there are universal (in a strong sense) laws or
>> physical truth. Among those already predicted by comp, is the Many-worlds
>> aspect of reality, which appears under the substitution level, and the
>> existence of indeterminacy and non-cloning. In particular, without QM, I
>> would probably tend to believe that comp is not plausible.
>>
>> But comp gives the whole mathematics of observability, which leads to
>> infinitely many testable propositions. For example, a form of Bell's
>> inequality can be described in the logic Z1*, and, well, it is still open
>> if Z1* violates it. (because it is intractable, despite the fact that Z1*
>> is decidable, but it would be miraculous that Z1* proves it, for some
>> reason to lengthy to develop here). But the point is that if Z1* proves
>> that Bell inequality, then the fact that nature violates it would refute
>> comp. Z1* (and/or S4Grz1, X1*) is (are) supposed to formalize the entire
>> quantum logic, so we can compare directly the quantum logics and the
>> quantum logic of comp.
>>
>> Some hope comes from a paper by Rawling and Selesnick(*), which use
>> quantum logic, and even the modal logic B, which is the modal form of
>> quantum logic (by a result due to Goldblatt), to implement a quantum NOR.
>> All this can be tested in Z1*, and normally we can test the existence of
>> quantum computation in Z1* (or in his quantified extension qZ1*). Imagine
>> that someone can prove that qZ1* cannot emulate a quantum computer, and
>> imagine we succeed in implementing a quantum computation, then comp (+
>> Theaetetus) is refuted.
>> Yesterday (!), I have been sent new papers on quantum logic, which shows
>> that the field has progressed, notably with respect of quantum computing,
>> and this suggest that the best way to refute comp, or improve the knowledge
>> theory, will come from the ability of qS4Grz1, or qZ1*, or qX1*, to
>> simulate a quantum computer.
>>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>> (*) J. P. Rawling and S. A. Selesnick. Orthologic and Quantum Logic :
>> Models and Computational
>> Elements. Journal of the ACM, 47(4) :721–751, 2000.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> Regards,
>> Quentin
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> However I see that isn't so, so I will be interested to know how it's
>>> testable - if I ever make it to understanding AUDA.
>>>
>>>
>>> I hope to be able to explain enough so that you understand the main line
>>> on this.
>>> Meanwhile, more explanation, notably in my answer to Brent.
>>>
>>> Bruno
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
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>>
>>
>>
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>> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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-- 
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Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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