2014-02-15 10:01 GMT+01:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>:

>
> I don't beg the question, I don't see a problem generating a virtual world
> where F=ma does not hold true... that world exists in an infinity of
> versions in the UD deployment as our own reality... You have no point
> proving our own reality could not be a "dream" in that sense... The only
> thing that should render our own reality "more" real, is that it certainly
> requires less rules than a reality where F=ma is false...
>
>
> Not at all. By the invariance of the first person, the number of rules and
> the complexity of the explanations/programs is not relevant. If not I would
> have solve the measure problem by an appeal to Kolmogorov or Chaitin
> complexity. But this cannot work. It is only in the "self-multiplication"
> factors that the laws of physics can become stable. nature use linearity,
> and the discovery of arithmetical quantum logic confirms up to now that
> fact. It makes the Everett multiplication of populations (the first person
> plural) protecting comp from solipsism.
>
>
>
>
>> All pieces of dreams are consistent with the actual state of a sentient
>> being.
>> That is the origin of the white rabbits. if our brain is a universal
>> machine, we can can be failed, and are actually failed in infinities of
>> computations. UDA made the laws of physics in a probability calculus,
>> assuming the measure exist: that is: a law of physics is what multiplies
>> the normal histories again the aberrant one.
>>
>
> Yes but you don't have that measure nor a way to calculate it,
>
>
> I do. That's what Z1* & Co. are supposed to provide. It is technically
> complex to do, but everything is explained here. the rest are pure open
> problem in math.
>
>
>
> you don't know it and you can't know that our reality does win the measure
> battle.
>
>
> I make this testable, of course I need definitions (of belief, knowledge,
> observation, in the ideal case of the self-referentially correct machine
> needed to extract the "correct" physics).
>
>
>
> Anyway the fact that almost anything is possible (with different
> proportion as a measure is assumed), means that *no* measure can invalidate
> computationalism...
>
>
> Then no measure can invalidate Everett QM for the same reason. Comp and QM
> makes both physics into a statistics.
>
>
I don't think MWI is falsifiable either...


>
>
>
> computationalism is a metaphysical stands and up to now in your
> argumentation I see nothing that could falsify comp... You always say to
> compare physics to comp physics, but it's a dead end, no contradiction can
> be inferred from that.
>
>
> I cannot make sense of that. That opinion was widely hold before 1991, as
> X1* and Z1* was believed to collapse the modal logic, due to the fact that
> the "& p" and "p->[]p" seemed to impose simultaneously antisymmetry and
> symmetry, but the nuances brought eventually by incompleteness eventually
> refuted, amazingly enough, that collapse.  That is important as it makes
> comp distinguishing clearly comp physical laws from comp possible
> geographies.
>

What are comp physical laws then ? if it is an "open problem" because
calculus is intractable... then comp is not falsifiable, you can't use
falsifiability argument if such falsification is intractable.

And I still don't understand how comp can sort geographical laws from
deeper laws.


>
>
>
>
>
>>
>> This can be translated in computer science/arithmetic, and the case of
>> probability one can be studied by its logic. This, all Löbian machine can
>> understand by "introspection" (self-reference) and so the physics is
>> derivable from self-reference only, and then tested with the observation.
>> Then the result is that a physical (lawful) physical reality does exist,
>> with a fundamental logic which is already enough quantum-like to let us
>> hope to have an equivalent of Gleason theorem, and in that case the white
>> rabbit problem is solved *only* by the quantum logic we observe.
>> The infinity of computational consistent relative state obeys the same
>> logic in an artificial simulation and in the physics, emerging (or not)
>> from the sum on UD*.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>  That one is determined by computer science. The case of the
>>> "probability one" logic is given by the arithmetical quantization.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> so it is below the substitution level, because the level is finite or
>>> comp is false.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> If qZ1* proves F=ma, and if my environment does not obeys F=ma,
>>>>
>>>
>>> How would it proves that ?
>>>
>>>
>>> By showing that Z1* gives the good type of quantum logic, enough to
>>> assure Gleason theorem, and derive the measure from some canonical
>>> (Hilbertian) semantics. Z1* is already able to decide if the Hilbert space
>>> is finitely dimension, or infinitely dimensional. Then dimension is related
>>> to the probability calculus (by works by many quantum logicians), and
>>> normally, arithmetic add infinitely many constraints at the first order
>>> modal logic level.
>>> It might be hard, but I do thing that qZ1* is able to decide if "F=ma"
>>> is valid or not in the worlds of the comp multiverses".
>>> Nobody said it was simple, especially that such question is complex for
>>> reasonable theorem provers.
>>>
>>> []<>A is written in a Z logic, so in G it is equivalent to []([]A V <>A)
>>> & <>([]A V<>A), so the ultimate arithmetical propositions  are rather
>>> complex.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> It can't, the proof is that there *can be* environments where F!=ma
>>> which also results from an infinity of computations.
>>>
>>>
>>>>  it will looks "dreamy" to me,
>>>>
>>>
>>> No argument there proving that.
>>>
>>>
>>> I hope that what I explain above has clarified.
>>>
>>
>> No... what you clarified was already known,
>>
>>
>> I have clarified that Bell's inequality violation is (most plausibly) a
>> law,
>>
>
> if it is "most plausibly", you haven't clarified anything...
>
>
> For the contingent reason that it is still intractable. But the formal
> theory and the theorems (or non theorems) are there.
> And given that B violates the inequality, you can bet that the B^- (B
> without necessitation) + some arithmetical constraints will violate too.
>
>
>
>
> it is or it isn't but "most plausibly" is not a clarification...
>
>
> Yes. But that is just an open problem. The theorem prover get a memory
> overflow, simply. Meanwile, some open questions have been solved, but most
> others remain.
>
>
>
>
>
>
>>  and that, actually, all quantum tautologies are already either laws or
>> precise open problems, and explained why arithmetic must give all
>> constraints (by UDA) so that some "Gleason theorem" can be used.
>>
>> I am not sure I understand what you seem missing.
>>
>
> I'm don't feel I'm missing anything, I challenge your view that UDA is
> falsifiable.
>
>
> ? You mean comp?
>

Yes


> UDA is a reasoning: it is valid or not.
>

I think it is valid, but that doesn't render comp falsifiable.


>  AUDA is the translation in arithmetic. It makes comp + the classical
> theory of knowledge falsifiable. Indeed physics is entirely given by qZ1*
> and/or qX1*, with some "harmonic" part given by S4Grz1.
>
> I can hardly imagine something more falsifiable.
>

You should have precise testing for a thing to be falsifiable, if it is
only calculus but they are intractable in practice, I hardly call that
falsifiable.

Regards,
Quentin


>
> In 1991, when I found the "material intelligible and sensible hypostases
> (the Z and X logic), I predicted that they would be refuted in the year, by
> me or my students or colleagues. This did not happened, despite their many
> efforts.
> Later I predicted it would be refuted by experts in quantum logic before
> 2000. But up to now, nature confirms the arithmetical quantizations,
> extracted from S4Grz1, Z1* and X1*,  and they corroborate formally the fact
> that the comp laws physics are quantum laws, despite we loose the
> necessitation rule in the corresponding (to B) modal logic B^-
>
> Bruno
>
>
>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
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