On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 06:07:00PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
> On 13 Feb 2014, at 16:40, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
> 
> >
> >
> >
> >2014-02-13 16:31 GMT+01:00 Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>:
> >
> >On 13 Feb 2014, at 12:36, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
> >
> >>
> >>
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >>
> >>
> >>
> >>
> >>
> >>>hence F=ma cannot be universaly true if comp is true.
> >>
> 

...

> 
> >Even F=m*a cannot be universal as I've shown,
> 
> It might be. I think it is (I mean the Feynman generalisation, which
> is already close to comp-physics, but that's out of the topic).
> 

...

> The computation interfere below the substitution level, but the
> artificial simulation with F≠ma, bring an artificial physics, which
> does not result from the interference below the subst. level.
> 
> If qZ1* proves F=ma, and if my environment does not obeys F=ma, it
> will looks "dreamy" to me, I will see that I am not in a real (comp)
> physical reality, I will see the discrepancy.
> 
> 

F=ma is more of a definition actually, than a logical constraint. It
is how we define (and operationally measure) "force".

If you have a copy of Vic Stenger's "Comprehensible Cosmos", he
discusses this from page 48.

Actually, the correct relativistic form is F=dp/dt, where p is the 3
momentum of the object under consideration. F=ma is its low velocity
approximation.

So I would be surprised if COMP fails to prove Newton's second law -
it would mean someone was using terminology inconsistently.

Cheers

-- 

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Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics      [email protected]
University of New South Wales          http://www.hpcoders.com.au
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