> [Arlo]
> I'm not familiar with Nietzsche to make any comment on this. Could you 
> explain?
> As for the intellectual validity of the argument, it would have to show 
> how
> "freedom" and "man's rights" came from religion and not secular 
> enlightenment.
> To do so, it would have to demonstrate that historically this has been a
> concern of religion, and we see that it has not... until the 
> post-enlightenment
> period.
>
> It has been against these castrating forces that religion set up 
> "redefining
> itself" and has latched onto the very philosophy that it had fought 
> against. If
> you have any ideas or examples of otherwise, I'd love to hear them.
>


Hi Arlo

John Caputo looks at this stuffpost-modern stuff in his On Religion book, I 
haven't the
time and energy to dig this stuff out for you at the moment, but one thing
I'd suggest is that the intellectual development of the Enlightenment is
closely tied to protestant and religious dissenter thought so that what
we get in the Enlightenment is a mix of class revolution, recovery of
Greek thought and new critical christian thought, few philosophes or 
enlightenment
scientists were atheists. My point: it's always a complex culturalmix.
Lots of christian marxist revoluiionaries or christian socialist reformers 
in the UK
after the enlightenment, looking atv slavery and working conditions & urban 
poverty.

Of cousre, all the really odd christians left Europe and went sailing off 
west somewhere!
I wonder what happened to them?

regards
David M 


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