DMB said:
Yes, of course you're allowed to have an opinion. And I'm 
allowed to challenge that opinion, right? 

Matt:
Yeah, but as usual, it's the _way_ you do it that seems 
weird and silly.  You say, "I really don't see how your claim 
could be true," and this because you haven't seen anything 
about it in the journals.  "Could" is a problem of imagination, 
or a problem of demonstration.  In the latter sense, it not 
being in the journals demonstrates that it isn't true.  That's 
silly.  In the former sense, you can't figure out the idea and 
how it could be true, and since I'm not willing to help at this 
point by explaining myself further, it sems perfectly 
reasonable to say that you don't know what I've not 
unpacked well enough for you.  My claim is opaque, and 
since no clarity is coming from me, you move on.

It's perfectly fine to say, "Matt, you're full of shit," but 
your reasons often seem unreasonable.  This is the part of 
our argument where you say, "Huh, it's unreasonable to ask 
for reasons and arguments?  Geez, whose unreasonable 
now?"  But still, I don't have any new reasons aside from 
one's I've written in the past (like my "Ode to DMB"), and I 
don't have energy/time to re-enter the nitty-gritty of the 
playing field to develop new strategies of persuasion.  I've 
been removed from what little I knew about the debate for 
over a year now, and really, longer than that.  I can't keep 
up because I'm working on different problems now.  Nor was 
I ever "up" on contemporary debates, for that matter.  I 
have no idea what people take seriously these days, what 
the current fashions or trends are.  I find Ralph Ellison and 
Emerson a lot more interesting and useful for me than what's 
going on in the Journal of Philosophy or Review of 
Metaphysics, or whatever journals are hot these days.  It's 
perfectly legitimate to discount my opinion because I'm not 
up to speed--that's every individual's call.  Professional 
philosophy is just not my bag.

About other people who "hold my opinion"--God, it would be 
pretty sweet if I was original about this.  But I've stolen 
everything.  I should clarify what "this claim about 
experience and language" is, since even the way you stage 
it seems odd, or at least could be misleading.  The claim is 
that the philosophical term "experience" functions in the 
same role in, say, James and Dewey (but also Continentals 
like Bergson) as the philosophical term "language" functions 
in, say, Rorty, Sellars, and Quine (but also Continentals like 
Derrida and Foucault).  Pretty broad and sweeping, but I 
don't think that original, and could be shown with the 
requisite work (so I think).

Aside from Rorty, who I think I've stolen the idea from, try 
Ian Hacking's Why Does Language Matter to Philosophy?  
It's pretty much the potted story I tell in that one post.  
And that's all I can think of off the top of my head.  I truly 
doubt my originality, but I'm not in the thick of a debate 
and don't have my finger on the pulse of materials.  If I 
had to say, people started talking less and less about the 
linguistic turn through the 80s and 90s partly because 
people stopped seeing the move as significant (which is 
part of my argument).  They kept talking about semantics 
and philosophy of language, but without the 
metaphilosophical claims about how language was going to 
replace experience.  It's getting play nowadays because 
people want to talk, I suspect, about something other 
than semantics and philosophy of language, which means 
they have to pick the metaphilosophical battles that were 
just simply ignored as professors of philosophy for 30 
years neither wanted to stop saying they were "analytic" 
with a special method, nor wanted to go back to the 
realism vs. idealism debate and "experience" as a 
philosophical term (which they still vaguely remembered 
unfondly from their youth).  As these guys die and retire, 
the new generation are finally picking up the baton of 
James and Dewey that got ignored when "linguistic turn" 
philosophers convinced everyone that they could avoid 
silly metaphysical problems (like of the External World or 
of Other Minds) better by talking about language and 
logic.  In the fury of new subdisciplines, the real fight 
James and Dewey were fighting got lost, and realism vs. 
idealism was simply transposed into realism vs. antirealism.

Now, my hope is that this "heated conversation" you're 
talking about is at least in part metaphilosophical, about 
what it is philosophers do when they do philosophy, 
because it is at that level, I think, that James and Dewey 
had the most to say, and it is at that level that the debate 
between realism and idealism slowly fades for a more useful 
philosophy.  Because the way you talk, it makes it sound 
like we are just re-doing the "bad metaphysical" debates 
from the turn of the century, with Fans of the 
Experience-Term now the realists and Fans of the 
Language-Term the idealists Experience-Termers once were 
(opposed to Fans of the Reality-Term that opposed them 
100 years ago, a club that has died off).

My interest in philosophical debates is nearly only 
metaphilosophical--that's the part that probably makes 
you weirded out, because it looks like I've evacuated 
"metaphysics."  But in the notion of "metaphysics" typically 
employed by people turning back the clock of the linguistic 
turn, I don't see much disagreeable since the term has 
been defined so largely (like, "how shit hangs together in 
the widest possible sense").  In that sense of metaphysics, 
I have a metaphysics.  I still don't like talking about it much, 
but mainly because my attachment to terms in the 
hang-together realm isn't that great--I pick out whatever 
helps me at the time.  

Something occured to me though: how could there be a 
heated conversation about the reality of an 
experience-language gulf (the commonsense distinction I've 
never denied, mind you) if no one is posing the other side 
(e.g., there is no gulf)?  People suit up for arguments when 
they have somebody to argue _against_, right?

Matt


> From: [email protected]
> To: [email protected]
> Date: Wed, 10 Mar 2010 11:50:49 -0700
> Subject: Re: [MD] continental and analytic philosophy
> 
> 
> dmb said to Matt:
> To gloss over the difference between language and experience is a bit 
> ham-handed. ... Given the heated conversations that are going on in the 
> journals about  this difference between experience and language, I really 
> don't see how your claim could be true.
> 
> Matt replied:
> 
> Because philosophers disagree...? I didn't say I wasn't simplifying or hamily 
> summing up my opinion.  Am I not allowed my opinion, or to summarize my 
> opinion without offering a dissertation on the subject? ...If you want to 
> "see" how my "claim could be true," read Richard Rorty.  You and everyone 
> else is well-aware that I'm just stealing his stuff.  If you want to reject 
> Rorty because most people in "the journals" reject him, that's fine, but....
> 
> 
> 
> dmb says:
> 
> Yes, of course you're allowed to have an opinion. And I'm allowed to 
> challenge that opinion, right? 
> 
> But I sincerely wonder if anyone shares your opinion. If there is any work 
> out there that makes this claim about experience and language, I'd definitely 
> like to know about it. Do you have a name or a title or anything like that? 
> Part of the reason I'm so skeptical is simply that I've never seen such a 
> thing. All the sources I've seen say the difference is not just real, but 
> that it is seemingly irreconcilable. As far as I know, you're the only one 
> who makes a claim to the contrary. If I'm wrong about that and you can show 
> me that, I'd be grateful.
> 
> 
>                                         
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