dmb said to Matt:
To gloss over the difference between language and experience is a bit
ham-handed. ... Given the heated conversations that are going on in the
journals about this difference between experience and language, I really don't
see how your claim could be true.
Matt replied:
Because philosophers disagree...? I didn't say I wasn't simplifying or hamily
summing up my opinion. Am I not allowed my opinion, or to summarize my opinion
without offering a dissertation on the subject? ...If you want to "see" how my
"claim could be true," read Richard Rorty. You and everyone else is well-aware
that I'm just stealing his stuff. If you want to reject Rorty because most
people in "the journals" reject him, that's fine, but....
dmb says:
Yes, of course you're allowed to have an opinion. And I'm allowed to challenge
that opinion, right?
But I sincerely wonder if anyone shares your opinion. If there is any work out
there that makes this claim about experience and language, I'd definitely like
to know about it. Do you have a name or a title or anything like that? Part of
the reason I'm so skeptical is simply that I've never seen such a thing. All
the sources I've seen say the difference is not just real, but that it is
seemingly irreconcilable. As far as I know, you're the only one who makes a
claim to the contrary. If I'm wrong about that and you can show me that, I'd be
grateful.
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