Helmut, List:

A correlate cannot *be *a relation, a correlate is *in *a relation. A
dyadic relation has two correlates, while a triadic relation has three
correlates and *involves *three dyadic relations between the different
pairs of those three correlates; a *genuine *triadic relation is not *reducible
*to those three dyadic relations. For the genuine triadic relation of
representing or (more generally) mediating, there is no *separate *trichotomy
for the *object's *dyadic relation with the interpretant, since it is
always the same as the *sign's *dyadic relation with the interpretant. The
interpretant itself is thus a correlate, not a relation--it *is *the
meaning of the sign, not "a relation of a sign and a meaning"--and again,
the sign's relation with its interpretant is dyadic, not triadic.

Phaneroscopic analysis of the *genuine *triadic relation of
representing/mediating reveals that every one sign has two objects and
three interpretants, for a total of six correlates. Its *genuine *correlates
are the sign itself, its dynamical object, and its final interpretant--what
Peirce simply calls the sign, its object, and its interpretant in 1903. In
addition, a dynamical interpretant is any *actual *effect of a sign *token *in
an individual *event *of semiosis, so there is a separate trichotomy for
that *external *dyadic relation; however, there is no separate trichotomy
for the *degenerate *triadic relation of the sign token with its dynamical
object and dynamical interpretant, since it is *reducible *to the dyadic
relations that it involves. The immediate object and immediate interpretant
are both *internal *to the sign, which is why there are no separate
trichotomies for their *degenerate *dyadic relations.

Regards,

Jon

On Mon, Oct 20, 2025 at 10:15 AM Helmut Raulien <[email protected]> wrote:

> Jon, List,
>
> thank you for clarifying "trichotomy". So "S-O-I" is not one (it is
> compositional). My other point was: I think, regarding e.g. the
> interpretant for a correlate is not prescinding it from its
> relation-nature, because a correlate can be a relation. I think (right?
> false?) that the interpretant is a relation of a sign and a meaning, and
> the relation is, that it is the sign´s meaning. The relation between the
> interpretant and the sign is a triadic relation (sign, sign, meaning), that
> equals the dyad (sign, meaning), which again is the interpretant. But I
> dont know. if this is mathematically correct: (A,A,B) = (A,B)? When I have
> a relation with another man, which is the fact, that I owe him ten dollars,
> then the relation between me and this fact is again the fact, that I owe
> him ten dollars.
>
> Best, Helmut
> 19. Oktober 2025 um 02:50
>  "Jon Alan Schmidt" <[email protected]>
> *wrote:*
> Helmut, List:
>
> I will answer your second question first, then come back to your first
> question.
>
>
> HR: What is a trichotomy? Is it both about specification/classification,
> and composition?
>
>
> In Peirce's semeiotic, a trichotomy is for classification, not
> composition. As used for classifying signs, it is a division according to
> whether a specific correlate or relation falls under the category of
> 1ns/2ns/3ns (1903) or belongs in the corresponding 1st/2nd/3rd universe
> whose constituents are possibles/existents/necessitants (1908).
>
>
> HR: why is there so much emphasis put on the distinction between a
> correlate (object, interpretant) and the relation between the sign and each
> of both?
>
>
> Because when classifying signs, there are *different *trichotomies for
> the correlates and their relations. A sign is a qualisign/sinsign/legisign
> (later tone/token/type) according to the mode of apprehension of the sign
> itself (S). It is an abstractive/concretive/collective according to the
> mode of being of the dynamical object *itself* (Od), but an
> icon/index/symbol according to its dyadic *relation *with its dynamical
> object (Od-S). It is a gratific/actuous/temperative according to the
> purpose of the final interpretant *itself* (If), but a
> rheme/dicisign/argument (later seme/pheme/delome) according to its dyadic
> *relation* with its final interpretant (S-If). When arranging the
> trichotomies in the proper logical order, Peirce places the Od-S trichotomy 
> *after
> *the S trichotomy (1903), but the Od trichotomy *before* the S trichotomy
> (1908). He also places the S-If trichotomy after the Od-S trichotomy
> (1903), and the If trichotomy after the S trichotomy (1908).
>
>
> HR: I think, the object and the interpretant are already relations with
> the sign: The object (at least the immediate, but I think, both parts)
> doesn't exist, if it isn't denoted by, and determines the sign. The
> interpretant is already determined by the sign, and without an anticipated
> interpretant, the sign would not exist.
>
>
> The object and interpretant are correlates, not relations; they are *in *a
> genuine triadic relation with the sign, which *involves *their respective
> dyadic relations but is not reducible to them. As I have said many times
> before, I understand semiosis to be a *continuous *process; so when we
> pick out any *individual *sign, we are *prescinding *it from that flow,
> and we must also then identify *its *object and *its *interpretant. In
> that sense, you are correct that something does not *serve *as a
> dynamical object apart from the signs that it determines. Moreover, a sign
> might not have any *actual *(dynamical) interpretants, but it always has 
> *possible
> *(immediate) and *ideal *(final) interpretants.
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
> On Sat, Oct 18, 2025 at 2:47 PM Helmut Raulien <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Jon, Robert, List,
>>
>> I have two questions, the first is, why is there so much emphasis put on
>> the distinction between a correlate (object, interpretant) and the relation
>> between the sign and each of both? I think, the object and the interpretant
>> are already relations with the sign: The object (at least the immediate,
>> but I think, both parts) doesn´t exist, if it isn´t denoted by, and
>> determines the sign. The interpretant is already determined by the sign,
>> and without an anticipated interpretant, the sign would not exist. This
>> could be explained this more explicitly, by mentioning the two parts of the
>> object, and the three of the interpretant, but my point works anyway
>> already so, I think.
>> My second question is: What is a trichotomy? Is it both about
>> specification/classification, and composition? From the word root (to cut
>> something into three pieces)  I would say, it only is about composition,
>> e.g. for sign, object, interpretant. But not for classification, like
>> rheme, dicent, argument. Because there it is not about parts of something,
>> but about "either-or" classes. "Either-or" means, these items already are
>> apart, you cannot cut something into three pieces here. Ok, you can do this
>> with your mind, but then you don´t cut the real -or imagined- thing apart,
>> not even prescindingly, but virtually e.g. a sheet of paper, on which
>> classes are written. Then you have a trichotomy of paper, but not of the
>> interpretant (aka(?) its relation with the sign).
>>
>> Best, Helmut
>>
>
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