I, for one, don't see in Peirce that there is a 'pre-Big Bang universe' of 
'ur-continuity' nor that there is a 'creator' involved in this 'ur-continuity'. 
Nor that there is a 'different kind of pre-Big Bang Thirdness.

But I am concerned about the focus of this thread. It seems to me that we are 
moving into a discussion based around our own firmly-held personal beliefs 
about god, the world, creation etc, and are using Peirce, searching for and 
'interpreting' his writings, to support our own personal beliefs. 

I don't see the point of such a discussion.

Edwina
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Gary Richmond 
  To: Peirce-L 
  Sent: Thursday, November 03, 2016 12:05 AM
  Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Metaphysics and Nothing (was Peirce's Cosmology)


  Soren, Jon, List. 


  Soren wrote:
    ​
    But if the Logos is logic as semiotics and is emerging as thirdness or the 
tendency to take habits in all nature of Secondness as Stjernfelt argues so 
Well in Natural propositions and feeling is present in all matter (Hylozoism) 
and all three categories arise as universes from pure Zero. . .


  Jon and I (and others) have argued that the 3ns which "emerges" following the 
creation of this Universe (that is, after the Big Bang, so to loosely speak) is 
*not* the same as the 3ns which is the ur-continuity represented by the black 
board example in the last of the 1898 lectures. It seems to me that much hinges 
on whether or not one sees our Universe as presupposing this ur-continuity 
(nothing in particular but everything in general, with yet a tendency toward 
habit-taking because of this ur-continuity, otherwise termed the zero of pure 
potential, which is, for Peirce, certainly not "nothing at all").



  It has further been noted that Peirce suggests that the Creator is, or in 
some way participates, in this ur-continuity. Once *this* Universe is "in 
effect," then, yes, all that you and Stjernfelt argue may follow (although, I 
remain, as was Peirce, I firmly believe, a theist and not a panentheist, so I 
tend to reject that part of your argumentation, at least in consideration of 
the early cosmos).


  Best,


  Gary R






  Gary Richmond
  Philosophy and Critical Thinking
  Communication Studies
  LaGuardia College of the City University of New York
  C 745
  718 482-5690


  On Wed, Nov 2, 2016 at 7:41 PM, Søren Brier <sb....@cbs.dk> wrote:

    Jon, List




    ​​But if the Logos is logic as semiotics and is emerging as thirdness or 
the tendency to take habits in all nature of Secondness as Stjernfelt argues so 
Well in Natural propositions and feeling is present in all matter (Hylozoism) 
and all three categories arise as universes from pure Zero, why should its 
self-organization not match Eckhart’s idea of Jesus consciousness born in every 
man, if  “the father” is pure Zero and the holy spirit or ghost  is thirdness 
as self-organization, meaning that human consciousness as the aware man  is the 
living conscious realization in the flesh of the origin of our  being? Peirce’s 
naturalization encompassed pure Zero as the transcendental a part of nature and 
us. It fits a form of Gnostic panentheism, is my abduction. It fits with his 
mystical experience. It is esoterical  pure mysticism encompassing rationality 
and science without a  conscious personal creator. The basic postulate is that 
we can have access to the Godhead through a developed consciousness. This is 
basically what Bhakti Vedanta and much of Buddhism – and in my view Meister 
Eckhart in Christianity – say, and why he was excommunicated from the Catholic 
church, because he was – as many scholars has pointed out – too close to Adi 
Shankara’s thinking. It is pretty much Suzuki’s point of view too 
http://terebess.hu/zen/mesterek/d-t-suzuki-mysticism-christian-and-buddhist.pdf 
and he was hired by Paul Carus the editor of the Monist. Of cause we here have 
Emerson and the trandscendentalist’s view too.



      Best

                      Søren



    From: Jon Alan Schmidt [mailto:jonalanschm...@gmail.com] 
    Sent: 2. november 2016 22:43
    To: John F Sowa
    Cc: peirce-l@list.iupui.edu
    Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Metaphysics and Nothing (was Peirce's Cosmology)



    John, List:



    The question still arises of what to make of the statement in John's Gospel 
that "the Logos became flesh and dwelt among us."  Neither nature nor its laws 
can be substituted for Logos in this case.



    Regards,




    Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA

    Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman

    www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt



    On Wed, Nov 2, 2016 at 4:02 PM, John F Sowa <s...@bestweb.net> wrote:

    On 11/2/2016 2:01 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt wrote:

    His favorite Gospel was that of John, but did he ever quote its
    first chapter?  "In the beginning was the Word [logos] ...


    Since his father taught him Greek at a very early age, I'm sure
    that New Testament Greek was one of the first texts he studied.

    Given his interest in logic, Peirce may have preferred this gospel
    because of its use of the word 'logos'.

    Around 400 BC, Heraclitus (Fragment 1) wrote

    all things come to be according to this logos


    In the first century AD, John wrote

    In the beginning was the Logos. The Logos was with God.
    And God was the Logos. It was in the beginning with God.
    All things came to be through it, and without it nothing
    came to be that has come to be.


    They both used 'panta' (all things) and 'gignomai' (come to be).
    Heraclitus did not use the word 'Theos' (God), but John equated
    Theos with Logos.  Some scholars claim that John was influenced
    by Philo of Alexandria, who wrote many volumes (in Greek) to
    reconcile the Torah with Greek philosophy.

    Other scholars commented on the similarity between Logos as
    Heraclitus used it, Dao (or Tao) as Lao Zi used it, and Dharma
    as Gautama Buddha used it.  Perhaps that was not a coincidence,
    because they were approximate contemporaries, and they lived
    near the trade routes (Silk Road) from China to Asia Minor.

    In his _Ethica_, Spinoza used the words 'God' (Deus) and 'nature'
    (Natura) almost interchangeably.  When asked whether he believed
    in God, Einstein replied, "I believe in the God of Spinoza".

    The equation of God with the laws of nature by Spinoza and Einstein
    should be compared to Logos, Dao, and Dharma.  The Latin 'natura'
    is the Scholastic translation of the Greek 'physis'.  The English
    word 'physics' is an 18th century synonym for 'natural philosophy'.

    Peirce was also familiar with Aristotle's use of 'logos'.  The
    first paragraph of _De Interpretatione_ (in Greek and in various
    Scholastic commentaries) was likely to be another influence:

    First we must determine what are noun (onoma) and verb (rhêma); and
    after that, what are negation (apophasis), assertion (kataphasis),
    proposition (apophansis), and sentence (logos). Those in speech (phonê)
    are symbols (symbola) of affections (pathêmata) in the psyche, and
    those written (graphomena) are symbols of those in speech. As letters
    (grammata), so are speech sounds not the same for everyone. But they
    are signs (sêmeia) primarily of the affections in the psyche, which
    are the same for everyone, and so are the objects (pragmata) of which
    they are likenesses (homoiômata). On these matters we speak in the
    treatise on the psyche, for it is a different subject. (16a1)


    This is my translation, after comparing several English versions
    and producing a very literal translation that emphasizes the
    original Greek terms -- as Peirce would have read them.

    I discuss that paragraph and its relationship to writings by Peirce,
    the Scholastics, and others in http://www.jfsowa.com/pubs/rolelog.pdf

    John



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