Gary F., List: As John Sowa has rightly pointed out in the past, *formal *logic is not normative; Peirce situated it within Mathematics as "the science which draws necessary conclusions" from "proposition[s] imagined to be strictly true of an ideal state of things" (CP 3.558; 1898). As he put it elsewhere, "mathematics performs its reasonings by a *logica utens* which it develops for itself, and has no need of any appeal to a *logica docens*; for no disputes about reasoning arise in mathematics which need to be submitted to the principles of the philosophy of thought for decision" (CP 1.417; c. 1896). The same is true of Phaneroscopy, Esthetics, and Ethics.
*Normative* Logic as Semeiotic provides a *logica docens *as "the result of the scientific study" employing "such assumptions as that every assertion is either true or false, and not both, and that some propositions may be recognized to be true" (CP 2.204-205; 1901-2). It is required for Metaphysics, since it "endeavors to comprehend the Reality of Phenomena" (CP 5.121, EP 2:197; 1903), as well as all of the Special Sciences. Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Fri, Mar 8, 2019 at 6:01 AM <[email protected]> wrote: > Jon, if *all* of Logic and *all* of Semeiotic are normative, then the > term *Normative* is simply redundant in the phrase “Normative Logic as > Semeiotic.” > > > > By the way, I was not trying to convince you that the “two sets of three > Universes are necessarily different.” (That *would* be engaging in a > terminological dispute.) I was simply observing some differences between > “The Bedrock Beneath Pragmaticism” and “A Neglected Argument for the > Reality of God”. > > Gary f. >
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