Jon, So there is a Formal Logic as Semeiotic as well as a Normative Logic as Semeiotic. I was unaware of that.
Peirce says that “the normative sciences are thoroughly infused with duality” (EP2:385). Is Formal Logic as Semeiotic, or any other aspect of Semeiotic, free of this “hard dualism” (EP2:376)? For instance, how would you classify the following statement from “Bedrock”: “on the principle that logicians call ‘the Nota notae’ that the sign of a sign of anything, X, is itself a sign of the very same X, the Phemic Sheet, in representing the field of attention, represents the general object of that attention, the Universe of Discourse.” Normative Logic? Formal? Neither? Or both? Gary f. From: Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> Sent: 8-Mar-19 09:54 To: [email protected] Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] The Bedrock Beneath Pragmaticism Gary F., List: As John Sowa has rightly pointed out in the past, formal logic is not normative; Peirce situated it within Mathematics as "the science which draws necessary conclusions" from "proposition[s] imagined to be strictly true of an ideal state of things" (CP 3.558; 1898). As he put it elsewhere, "mathematics performs its reasonings by a logica utens which it develops for itself, and has no need of any appeal to a logica docens; for no disputes about reasoning arise in mathematics which need to be submitted to the principles of the philosophy of thought for decision" (CP 1.417; c. 1896). The same is true of Phaneroscopy, Esthetics, and Ethics. Normative Logic as Semeiotic provides a logica docens as "the result of the scientific study" employing "such assumptions as that every assertion is either true or false, and not both, and that some propositions may be recognized to be true" (CP 2.204-205; 1901-2). It is required for Metaphysics, since it "endeavors to comprehend the Reality of Phenomena" (CP 5.121, EP 2:197; 1903), as well as all of the Special Sciences. Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
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