Gary F., List: That is a valid point, consistent with my hypothesis that despite preferring "retroduction," Peirce uses "abduction" in 1901-1906 because his audiences were likely to be at least somewhat familiar with that term as the usual and traditional English translation of Aristotle's *ἀπαγωγή*.
Thanks, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Tue, Jun 16, 2020 at 7:24 AM <[email protected]> wrote: > Jon AS, > > Thanks as always for tracing out the full history of Peirce’s own usage of > the two terms. I too have treated them as synonymous in *Turning Signs*, > and I don’t think Gary R was suggesting otherwise — just that the different > terms are somewhat different in their suitability for communicating the one > idea in different contexts, or communicating it to different audiences. > > Gary f >
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