List

As an addendum - I wonder if this tortured focus on ‘ which term is the correct 
one’ has shades of nominalism in it…ie, that focus on the particular, the 
individual, [ ie the exact term]  and an difference to ‘what is real’. [ ie the 
meaning and function].

Edwina

> On Apr 12, 2024, at 9:32 AM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> 
> wrote:
> 
> Robert- I agree with you about examining how the ‘relations of embodiment’ of 
> the triadic sign actually function - but this recent debate - and it’s a 
> debate not a discussion’[ i.e., it’s focused on Who Wins ]- rejects a more 
> basic requirement of analysis; namely - what is the operative function of the 
> triad which is using those terms; it is instead focused solely on ‘which term 
> to use’ - and the focus is on ‘purity vs functionality’. .
> 
>  Therefore , as you point out, we get a focus on ‘which word did Peirce 
> prefer’ with the result as you point out that  “imaginary distinctions are 
> often drawn between beliefs which differ only in their mode of expression - 
> the wrangling which ensues is real enough, however” 5.398…But, equally 
> according to Peirce -  these are ‘false distinctions’….
> 
> Is it so impossible to state that one prefers the use of x-term [ which 
> Peirce used] to Y-term [ which Peirce used] because, according to your 
> analysis,  it better explains the operative function of what is semiotically  
> taking place - without the heavens opening up with a downpour of rejection???
> 
> I recall the equal horror of some members of this list when I use the terms 
> ‘input’ and ‘output’ to refer to the incoming data from the Dynamic object 
> and the resultant output Interpretant meaning of the semiosic 
> mediation….[Peirce never used those words!! You’re a pseudo-Peircean; you 
> are…” . But without such modernization and explanation of the function of 
> semiosis, and the insistence by ’The Purists’ on using only Peircean terms - 
> and above all, his ‘favourite terms’ - , we will never be able to move the 
> real analytic power of Peircean semiosis into the modern world. And that -  - 
> is where I believe the focus should be. 
> 
> Edwina
> 
> 
>> On Apr 12, 2024, at 6:29 AM, robert marty <[email protected]> wrote:
>> 
>> List,
>> I contribute to the debate with this note that I posted on Academia.edu a 
>> few years ago ... at my peril ... I have not yet looked at tone/mark, but 
>> the same methodology should make it possible to conclude that each of the 
>> six types of token involves a tone/mark of a particular kind.
>> https://www.academia.edu/61335079/Note_on_Signs_Types_and_Tokens
>> Regards,
>> Robert Marty
>> Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy 
>> fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty 
>> <https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty>
>> https://martyrobert.academia.edu/
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> Le ven. 12 avr. 2024 à 05:04, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected] 
>> <mailto:[email protected]>> a écrit :
>>> John, List:
>>> 
>>> JFS: As words, there is no logical difference between the words 'mark' and 
>>> 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.
>>> 
>>> Again, the key difference is between Peirce's definition of "mark" in 
>>> Baldwin's dictionary and his definition of "tone"--as well as "tuone," 
>>> "tinge," and "potisign"--in various other places.
>>> 
>>> JFS: But some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be 
>>> considered ugly. They are certainly not memorable.
>>> 
>>> Peirce famously preferred an ugly word for his version of pragmatism so 
>>> that it would be "safe from kidnappers." If being memorable is a criterion, 
>>> then "tone" is superior to "mark" due to its alliteration with "token" and 
>>> "type"; as Gary said, someone suggested to him "that the three all starting 
>>> with the letter 't' perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device."
>>> 
>>> JFS: Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more often, mainly 
>>> in obscure MSS. That is not a ringing endorsement.
>>> 
>>> It is not a mere claim that I made, it is an indisputable fact--"tone" is 
>>> the only word that Peirce used in multiple places and at multiple times 
>>> between 1906 and 1908 for the possible counterpart of existent "token" and 
>>> necessitant "type." It is also the only one that was published during his 
>>> lifetime (CP 4.537, 1906)--the others appear in Logic Notebook entries and 
>>> the December 1908 letters to Lady Welby, with "mark" and "potisign" found 
>>> solely in the latter, although she subsequently endorsed "tone." As someone 
>>> once said, "She had a solid intuitive way of explaining principles that he 
>>> tended to explain in ways that were more abstract and difficult to 
>>> understand. Her influence enabled him to find simpler and more convincing 
>>> explanations for his abstract ideas" 
>>> (https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-02/msg00096.html).
>>> 
>>> JFS: That is not a scientific survey, but I could not find a single 
>>> non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 'tone'. If anybody 
>>> else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) one way or 
>>> the other, please let us know.
>>> 
>>> Gary already provided anecdotal evidence to the contrary and expressed his 
>>> personal preference for "tone." As always, my own priority is accurately 
>>> understanding, helpfully explaining, and fruitfully building on Peirce's 
>>> views by carefully studying and adhering to his words.
>>> 
>>> Regards,
>>> 
>>> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
>>> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
>>> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>> <http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>> <http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>
>>> On Thu, Apr 11, 2024 at 6:10 PM John F Sowa <[email protected] 
>>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>>>> Gary, Jon, List,
>>>> 
>>>> My note crossed in the mail with Gary's.  I responded to the previous 
>>>> notes by Jon and Gary (q.v.).
>>>> 
>>>> My conclusion:  As words, there is no logical difference between the words 
>>>> 'mark' and 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.   In fact, any word 
>>>> pulled out of thin air could be chosen as a term for a possible mark.  But 
>>>> some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be considered 
>>>> ugly.   They are certainly not memorable.
>>>> 
>>>> Peirce at one point suggested the word 'mark' as a word for 'possible 
>>>> mark'.  That shows he was not fully convinced that 'tone' was the best 
>>>> word for the future.  Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' 
>>>> more often, mainly in obscure MSS.  That is not a ringing endorsement.
>>>> 
>>>> But we must remember that Tony Jappy also chose the word 'mark' for the 
>>>> triad (mark token type).   And he has devoted years of research to the 
>>>> issues.  As I pointed out, authorities are not infallible, but they are 
>>>> more likely to be authorities than T. C. Mits (The Common Man in the 
>>>> street).
>>>> 
>>>> And I myself have been cited as an authority for quite a few issues in 
>>>> logic, including Peirce's logic.  See https://jfsowa.com/pubs/ for 
>>>> publications.   There are even more lecture slides.  (Copies upon request.)
>>>> 
>>>> But the ultimate judges for the vocabulary are the speakers of the future. 
>>>>  The overwhelming majority of knowledgeable logicians, linguists, and 
>>>> philosophers who know the pair (token type) but not the first term, find 
>>>> mark far more congenial and memorable than tone.  I discovered that point 
>>>> while talking to them.  That is not a scientific survey, but I could not 
>>>> find a single non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 
>>>> 'tone'. 
>>>> 
>>>> If anybody else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) 
>>>> one way or the other, please let us know.
>>>> 
>>>> John
>>>> 
>>>> From: "Gary Richmond" <[email protected] 
>>>> <mailto:[email protected]>>
>>>> List,
>>>> 
>>>> While at first I was sceptical of Jon's keeping this discussion going as 
>>>> it has continued for some time now, yet this most recent post of his 
>>>> reminded me that  the principal issue being considered has not been 
>>>> resolved unless you want to accept John's word that it has been and, by 
>>>> the way, completely along the lines of his analysis. In other words, the 
>>>> 'tone' v. 'mark' question has been settled because John says it has and, 
>>>> so, there's no need for further discussion.
>>>> 
>>>> I have followed this exchange very closely and find that Jon's 
>>>> argumentation is bolstered by textual and other support. For example, 
>>>> contra John, he has repeatedly demonstrated -- again, with more than 
>>>> sufficient textual support - that any use of 'mark' consistent with 
>>>> Peirce's Baldwin Dictionary definition is contrary to Peirce's discussion 
>>>> of 'tone' (and related terms, such as. 'potisign'). For 'mark' is viewed 
>>>> by Peirce as a kind of term and, so, decidedly not a possible sign. 
>>>> Indeed, the very image that comes to my mind for 'mark' is always an 
>>>> existential one, say a mark on a blackboard, or a beauty mark.
>>>> 
>>>> Conversely, as Jon has repeatedly shown, all of Peirce's definitions of a 
>>>> possible sign include the idea that its being is a significant "quality of 
>>>> feeling," a "Vague Quality," a sign that while "merely possible, [is] felt 
>>>> to be positively possible." 
>>>> 
>>>> John says that when he uses 'mark' as having Peirce's meaning of a "Vague 
>>>> Quality" that his listeners, typically not schooled in Peircean thought, 
>>>> "find it quite congenial" and, so he uses it in all his talks and written 
>>>> work. I can only say that that has not been my experience over the years. 
>>>> For example, earlier this year I gave an invited talk at a session of the 
>>>> George Santayana Society at the Eastern APA on the trichotomic structure 
>>>> of Peirce's Classification of the Sciences where I found that in 
>>>> discussing tone, token, type that my interlocutors -- almost none of whom 
>>>> were familiar with Peirce's semeiotic -- found 'tone' to be most genial 
>>>> and, indeed, one suggested that the three all starting with the letter 't' 
>>>> perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device. Well, be that as it may, 
>>>> that notion is certainly trivial (pun intended).
>>>> 
>>>> Again, it bears repeating that John's remark that, because Tony Jappy used 
>>>> the term 'mark' rather than 'tone', he has adopted it is nothing but the 
>>>> logical fallacy of an appeal to authority. I have had any number of 
>>>> discussions with Peirceans over the past several years, none of whom have 
>>>> faulted my use of 'tone' for that "merely possible" sign. Mark my words!
>>>> 
>>>> Furthermore, I have found Jon more than willing to learn from his 
>>>> disagreements with others on the List. For example, in several of his 
>>>> papers he has expressed appreciation for the engagement with several 
>>>> Peirce-L members with whom he has 'contended' on the List, including John. 
>>>>  
>>>> 
>>>> And despite John's claim that having read Jon's post prior to this most 
>>>> recent one and finding "nothing new," Jon has clearly shown that he in 
>>>> fact did provide, and "for the first time," a list of all the passages 
>>>> where Peirce uses not only 'tone', but its variants (such as 'tuone' and 
>>>> 'potisgin'). John, on the other hand, has kept repeating his opinions with 
>>>> little textual support.
>>>> 
>>>> So I ask each member of this forum who has an interest in this topic to 
>>>> honestly weigh the arguments presented by Jon and John and determine for 
>>>> themself who has made the stronger case, John for 'mark' or Jon for 
>>>> 'tone'. Perhaps then we can put the matter to rest (at least for a time).
>>>> 
>>>> Best,
>>>> 
>>>> Gary Richmond
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