List,
I contribute to the debate with this note that I posted on Academia.edu a
few years ago ... at my peril ... I have not yet looked at tone/mark, but
the same methodology should make it possible to conclude that each of the
six types of token involves a tone/mark of a particular kind.
https://www.academia.edu/61335079/Note_on_Signs_Types_and_Tokens
Regards,
Robert Marty
Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy
fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty
*https://martyrobert.academia.edu/ <https://martyrobert.academia.edu/>*



Le ven. 12 avr. 2024 à 05:04, Jon Alan Schmidt <jonalanschm...@gmail.com> a
écrit :

> John, List:
>
> JFS: As words, there is no logical difference between the words 'mark' and
> 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.
>
>
> Again, the key difference is between Peirce's *definition *of "mark" in
> Baldwin's dictionary and his *definition *of "tone"--as well as "tuone,"
> "tinge," and "potisign"--in various other places.
>
> JFS: But some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be
> considered ugly. They are certainly not memorable.
>
>
> Peirce famously *preferred *an ugly word for his version of pragmatism so
> that it would be "safe from kidnappers." If being memorable is a criterion,
> then "tone" is superior to "mark" due to its alliteration with "token" and
> "type"; as Gary said, someone suggested to him "that the three all starting
> with the letter 't' perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device."
>
> JFS: Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more often,
> mainly in obscure MSS. That is not a ringing endorsement.
>
>
> It is not a mere claim that I made, it is an indisputable fact--"tone" is
> the *only *word that Peirce used in multiple places and at multiple times
> between 1906 and 1908 for the possible counterpart of existent "token" and
> necessitant "type." It is also the *only *one that was published during
> his lifetime (CP 4.537, 1906)--the others appear in Logic Notebook entries
> and the December 1908 letters to Lady Welby, with "mark" and "potisign"
> found solely in the latter, although *she *subsequently endorsed "tone."
> As someone once said, "She had a solid intuitive way of explaining
> principles that he tended to explain in ways that were more abstract and
> difficult to understand. Her influence enabled him to find simpler and more
> convincing explanations for his abstract ideas" (
> https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-02/msg00096.html).
>
> JFS: That is not a scientific survey, but I could not find a single
> non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 'tone'. If anybody
> else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) one way or
> the other, please let us know.
>
>
> Gary already provided anecdotal evidence to the contrary and expressed his
> personal preference for "tone." As always, my own priority is accurately
> understanding, helpfully explaining, and fruitfully building on *Peirce's
> *views by carefully studying and adhering to *his *words.
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
> On Thu, Apr 11, 2024 at 6:10 PM John F Sowa <s...@bestweb.net> wrote:
>
>> Gary, Jon, List,
>>
>> My note crossed in the mail with Gary's.  I responded to the previous
>> notes by Jon and Gary (q.v.).
>>
>> My conclusion:  As words, there is no logical difference between the
>> words 'mark' and 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.   In fact, any word
>> pulled out of thin air could be chosen as a term for a possible mark.  But
>> some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be considered
>> ugly.   They are certainly not memorable.
>>
>> Peirce at one point suggested the word 'mark' as a word for 'possible
>> mark'.  That shows he was not fully convinced that 'tone' was the best word
>> for the future.  Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more
>> often, mainly in obscure MSS.  That is not a ringing endorsement.
>>
>> But we must remember that Tony Jappy also chose the word 'mark' for the
>> triad (mark token type).   And he has devoted years of research to the
>> issues.  As I pointed out, authorities are not infallible, but they are
>> more likely to be authorities than T. C. Mits (The Common Man in the
>> street).
>>
>> And I myself have been cited as an authority for quite a few issues in
>> logic, including Peirce's logic.  See https://jfsowa.com/pubs/ for
>> publications.   There are even more lecture slides.  (Copies upon request.)
>>
>> But the ultimate judges for the vocabulary are the speakers of the
>> future.  The overwhelming majority of knowledgeable logicians, linguists,
>> and philosophers who know the pair (token type) but not the first term,
>> find mark far more congenial and memorable than tone.  I discovered that
>> point while talking to them.  That is not a scientific survey, but I could
>> not find a single non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word
>> 'tone'.
>>
>> If anybody else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference)
>> one way or the other, please let us know.
>>
>> John
>>
>> ------------------------------
>> *From*: "Gary Richmond" <gary.richm...@gmail.com>
>> List,
>>
>> While at first I was sceptical of Jon's keeping this discussion going as
>> it has continued for some time now, yet this most recent post of his
>> reminded me that  the principal issue being considered has *not *been 
>> resolved
>> unless you want to accept John's word that it has been and, by the way,
>> completely along the lines of *his* analysis. In other words, the 'tone'
>> v. 'mark' question has been settled *because* John says it has and, so,
>> there's no need for further discussion.
>>
>> I have followed this exchange very closely and find that Jon's
>> argumentation is bolstered by textual and other support. For example,
>> contra John, he has repeatedly demonstrated -- again, with more than
>> sufficient textual support - that any use of 'mark' consistent with
>> Peirce's Baldwin Dictionary definition is contrary to Peirce's discussion
>> of 'tone' (and related terms, such as. 'potisign'). For 'mark' is viewed by
>> Peirce as a kind of *term* and, so, decidedly *not *a *possible sign*.
>> Indeed, the very image that comes to my mind for 'mark' is always an
>> *existential* one, say a mark on a blackboard, or a beauty mark.
>>
>> Conversely, as Jon has repeatedly shown, all of Peirce's definitions of a 
>> *possible
>> sign* include the idea that its being is a significant "quality of
>> feeling," a "Vague Quality," a sign that while "merely possible, [is] felt
>> to be positively possible."
>>
>> John says that when he uses 'mark' as having Peirce's meaning of a "Vague
>> Quality" that his listeners, typically *not* schooled in Peircean
>> thought, "find it quite congenial" and, so he uses it in all his talks and
>> written work. I can only say that that has not been my experience over the
>> years. For example, earlier this year I gave an invited talk at a session
>> of the George Santayana Society at the Eastern APA on the trichotomic
>> structure of Peirce's Classification of the Sciences where I found that in
>> discussing tone, token, type that my interlocutors -- almost none of whom
>> were familiar with Peirce's semeiotic -- found 'tone' to be most genial
>> and, indeed, one suggested that the three all starting with the letter 't'
>> perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device. Well, be that as it may,
>> that notion is certainly trivial (pun intended).
>>
>> Again, it bears repeating that John's remark that, because Tony Jappy
>> used the term 'mark' rather than 'tone', he has adopted it is nothing but
>> the logical fallacy of an appeal to authority. I have had any number of
>> discussions with Peirceans over the past several years, none of whom have
>> faulted my use of 'tone' for that "merely possible" sign. Mark my words!
>>
>> Furthermore, I have found Jon more than willing to learn from his
>> disagreements with others on the List. For example, in several of his
>> papers he has expressed appreciation for the engagement with* several*
>> Peirce-L members with whom he has 'contended' on the List, including John.
>>
>> And despite John's claim that having read Jon's post prior to this most
>> recent one and finding "nothing new," Jon has clearly shown that he in fact
>> did provide, and "for the first time," a list of all the passages where
>> Peirce uses not only 'tone', but its variants (such as 'tuone' and
>> 'potisgin'). John, on the other hand, has kept repeating his opinions with
>> little textual support.
>>
>>
>> So I ask each member of this forum who has an interest in this topic to
>> honestly weigh the arguments presented by Jon and John and determine for
>> themself who has made the stronger case, John for 'mark' or Jon for 'tone'.
>> Perhaps then we can put the matter to rest (at least for a time).
>>
>> Best,
>>
>> Gary Richmond
>>
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