Edwina, Gary, Robert, List,

I'm sure that we're all familiar with Peirce's note about the ethics of 
terminology.  But it's not clear whether its influence was good, bad, or 
indifferent.  The position he recommended was the Linnaean conventions for 
naming biological species.  But very few things in the world are so rigidly 
classifiable.  And those that are have been classified by international 
conventions:  the integers, the chemical elements, and the chemical compounds.

And if you look at Peirce's own practice, he replaced 'phenomenology' with 
'phaneroscopy' just a couple of years later.  I believe that he was justified 
in coining the new term 'phaneroscopy', but there is enough overlap that he 
could have continued to use 'phenomenology'.   As for the choice of 'mark' vs 
'tone', I believe that 'tone' was a poor choice, and his vacillation in 1908 
indicates that he had some misgivings.  That vacillation nullifies any 
obligation to continue his practice.

Another poor choice on Peirce's part was to make 'logic' a synonym for 'logic 
as semeiotic'.  Until 1902, he used 'logic' as a synonym for the symbolic logic 
of Boole and his followers (of which he was one).  Instead, he chose the usage 
for the title of books, such as Whateley's.   I believe that Peirce made a 
serious mistake, and Fisch (in his 1986 book) deliberately chose the term 
'semeiotic' as the abbreviation for 'logic as semeiotic'.  In my recent article 
on phaneroscopy, I adopted  Fisch's recommendation.

And by the way, my citation of Fisch is NOT an appeal to authority.  It is the 
practice of taking the advice of an expert in a field for choosing terminology 
for that field.  I recommend that practice.

John

----------------------------------------
From: "Edwina Taborsky" <edwina.tabor...@gmail.com>

Gary R, List

1] Yes - I am aware of Peirce’s insistence on accurate terminology.  I am also 
aware of the many different terms he used for the same thing.  I am also aware 
of the many different terms that other scholars use to refer to the same  
situations as Peirce describes. My point is that we cannot isolate scholars and 
research from each other by insisting that use only the terms that specific 
scholar used. We should, rather, understand that these different scholars were 
trying to examine the same situations - and should be open to using  these 
different terms for the SAME situation.

2] Yes - I am indeed suggesting that the focus on terminology - and the 
insistence that one can use only Peirce’s terminology - because, for some 
reason, the meaning of Peirce’s terms cannot be considered as similar to the 
meanings yet with different terms used by others - - is a reduction into 
nominalism. And by nominalism - I mean a focus rejecting commonality - aka 
universals, such that one rejects the fact that, despite the different terms, 
there can be a commonality of existence….This can also be known as 
conceptualism.

Of course - different terminology can mean different meanings….but that’s not 
my point, is it?

3] You yourself referred to me as ‘pseudo-Peircean. As well as ‘dogmatic, 
idiosyncratic- and your claim that my work ‘has ‘long been discredited’.

4] A ‘purist’ in my view is someone who is unwilling to acknowledge that the 
work of some scholar can be similar in its analysis to the work of another 
scholar - but - that the terms used are different. ..and above all - it is 
perfectly acceptable to , for example, examine the work of Peirce using the 
terms used by other scholars.

5] I’m not sure what your point is with your outline that JAS is an 
‘accomplished andn distinguished structural engineer’ - and has given 
conference papers and  published papers on Peirce. The same accolades can be 
made about most others on this List - and, apart from it being an example of 
the logical fallacy of 'appeal to authority’ to which you have made reference, 
- such doesn’t make his comments any more valid than those of other people on 
the list.

Edwina

On Apr 12, 2024, at 11:21 PM, Gary Richmond <gary.richm...@gmail.com> wrote:

Edwina, List,

This is in response to your message to the List today as well as your addendum 
to that message. For now I mainly have just a few questions:

You are no doubt aware of Peirce's insistence on a rigorous ethics of 
terminology. Are you suggesting that he is incorrect in his insistence that 
terminology matters, and can matter significantly -- that is, that it can 
constitute a difference which makes a difference? If you disagree (which you 
appear to), why?

And are you suggesting that scholars and scientists who may occasionally focus 
on terminology -- recently, on the List, John Sowa, Jon Alan Schmidt, and 
myself -- are slipping into nominalism? I myself cannot see how a rigorous 
insistence on the importance of terminology has anything to do with nominalism. 
Please explain how it does. And please also include your definition of 
nominalism.

And do you disagree that using different terminology can correlate with having 
different concepts?

Further, if my memory isn't too diminished, I don't recall anyone on the List 
referring to you as a "pseudo-Peircean," something which would indeed 
constitute unacceptable 'name calling' on Peirce-L. However, today you 
suggested that some on this list are "Purists" which, had that expression been 
directed at particular List participants would indeed constitute a mild kind of 
'name calling' depending on the context. However, I have no idea what you mean 
by alleging that some here are 'purists' -- please explain what you mean by 
this.

It seems to be that there are many rooms in the houses of Peircean semeiotic, 
of Peircean pragmaticism -- more generally, of semiotic and pragmatism -- and 
that they are not mutually exclusive, that a scholar/scientist can be 
interested both in theory and practice (and although Peirce once denied it, he 
himself accomplished much in both theory and practice).

So it would be quite helpful if you would clarify your comments today.

And I will add, although he might prefer that I not, that Jon Alan Schmidt, not 
infrequently accused by some here as being a sort of Peircean theoretical 
'purist' simply because, as he wrote yesterday, his "own priority is accurately 
understanding, helpfully explaining, and fruitfully building on Peirce's views 
by carefully studying and adhering to his words," is an accomplished and 
distinguished structural engineer, often invited to speak at conventions and 
other gatherings because of his expertise.

And among the 44 papers of his cited on Google Scholar one will find, along 
with the specifically Peircean ones, some papers in which Peircean thought is 
applied in various ways, including engineering reasoning and ethics.
https://scholar.google.com/citations?user=EfQhY7cAAAAJ&hl=en

Best,

Gary

On Fri, Apr 12, 2024 at 10:38 AM Edwina Taborsky <edwina.tabor...@gmail.com> 
wrote:
List

As an addendum - I wonder if this tortured focus on ‘ which term is the correct 
one’ has shades of nominalism in it…ie, that focus on the particular, the 
individual, [ ie the exact term]  and an difference to ‘what is real’. [ ie the 
meaning and function].

Edwina

On Apr 12, 2024, at 9:32 AM, Edwina Taborsky <edwina.tabor...@gmail.com> wrote:

Robert- I agree with you about examining how the ‘relations of embodiment’ of 
the triadic sign actually function - but this recent debate - and it’s a debate 
not a discussion’[ i.e., it’s focused on Who Wins ]- rejects a more basic 
requirement of analysis; namely - what is the operative function of the triad 
which is using those terms; it is instead focused solely on ‘which term to use’ 
- and the focus is on ‘purity vs functionality’. .

Therefore , as you point out, we get a focus on ‘which word did Peirce prefer’ 
with the result as you point out that  “imaginary distinctions are often drawn 
between beliefs which differ only in their mode of expression - the wrangling 
which ensues is real enough, however” 5.398…But, equally according to Peirce -  
these are ‘false distinctions’….

Is it so impossible to state that one prefers the use of x-term [ which Peirce 
used] to Y-term [ which Peirce used] because, according to your analysis,  it 
better explains the operative function of what is semiotically  taking place - 
without the heavens opening up with a downpour of rejection???

I recall the equal horror of some members of this list when I use the terms 
‘input’ and ‘output’ to refer to the incoming data from the Dynamic object and 
the resultant output Interpretant meaning of the semiosic mediation….[Peirce 
never used those words!! You’re a pseudo-Peircean; you are…” . But without such 
modernization and explanation of the function of semiosis, and the insistence 
by ’The Purists’ on using only Peircean terms - and above all, his ‘favourite 
terms’ - , we will never be able to move the real analytic power of Peircean 
semiosis into the modern world. And that -  - is where I believe the focus 
should be.

Edwina

On Apr 12, 2024, at 6:29 AM, robert marty <robert.mart...@gmail.com> wrote:

List,I contribute to the debate with this note that I posted on Academia.edu a 
few years ago ... at my peril ... I have not yet looked at tone/mark, but the 
same methodology should make it possible to conclude that each of the six types 
of token involves a tone/mark of a particular kind.
https://www.academia.edu/61335079/Note_on_Signs_Types_and_Tokens
Regards,
Robert Marty
Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy
fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty
https://martyrobert.academia.edu/

Le ven. 12 avr. 2024 à 05:04, Jon Alan Schmidt <jonalanschm...@gmail.com> a 
écrit :
John, List:

JFS: As words, there is no logical difference between the words 'mark' and 
'tone' as a term for a possible mark.

Again, the key difference is between Peirce's definition of "mark" in Baldwin's 
dictionary and his definition of "tone"--as well as "tuone," "tinge," and 
"potisign"--in various other places.

JFS: But some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be 
considered ugly. They are certainly not memorable.

Peirce famously preferred an ugly word for his version of pragmatism so that it 
would be "safe from kidnappers." If being memorable is a criterion, then "tone" 
is superior to "mark" due to its alliteration with "token" and "type"; as Gary 
said, someone suggested to him "that the three all starting with the letter 't' 
perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device."

JFS: Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more often, mainly in 
obscure MSS. That is not a ringing endorsement.

It is not a mere claim that I made, it is an indisputable fact--"tone" is the 
only word that Peirce used in multiple places and at multiple times between 
1906 and 1908 for the possible counterpart of existent "token" and necessitant 
"type." It is also the only one that was published during his lifetime (CP 
4.537, 1906)--the others appear in Logic Notebook entries and the December 1908 
letters to Lady Welby, with "mark" and "potisign" found solely in the latter, 
although she subsequently endorsed "tone." As someone once said, "She had a 
solid intuitive way of explaining principles that he tended to explain in ways 
that were more abstract and difficult to understand. Her influence enabled him 
to find simpler and more convincing explanations for his abstract ideas" 
(https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-02/msg00096.html).

JFS: That is not a scientific survey, but I could not find a single 
non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 'tone'. If anybody else 
has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) one way or the other, 
please let us know.

Gary already provided anecdotal evidence to the contrary and expressed his 
personal preference for "tone." As always, my own priority is accurately 
understanding, helpfully explaining, and fruitfully building on Peirce's views 
by carefully studying and adhering to his words.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
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