Robert- I agree with you about examining how the ‘relations of embodiment’ of 
the triadic sign actually function - but this recent debate - and it’s a debate 
not a discussion’[ i.e., it’s focused on Who Wins ]- rejects a more basic 
requirement of analysis; namely - what is the operative function of the triad 
which is using those terms; it is instead focused solely on ‘which term to use’ 
- and the focus is on ‘purity vs functionality’. .

 Therefore , as you point out, we get a focus on ‘which word did Peirce prefer’ 
with the result as you point out that  “imaginary distinctions are often drawn 
between beliefs which differ only in their mode of expression - the wrangling 
which ensues is real enough, however” 5.398…But, equally according to Peirce -  
these are ‘false distinctions’….

Is it so impossible to state that one prefers the use of x-term [ which Peirce 
used] to Y-term [ which Peirce used] because, according to your analysis,  it 
better explains the operative function of what is semiotically  taking place - 
without the heavens opening up with a downpour of rejection???

I recall the equal horror of some members of this list when I use the terms 
‘input’ and ‘output’ to refer to the incoming data from the Dynamic object and 
the resultant output Interpretant meaning of the semiosic mediation….[Peirce 
never used those words!! You’re a pseudo-Peircean; you are…” . But without such 
modernization and explanation of the function of semiosis, and the insistence 
by ’The Purists’ on using only Peircean terms - and above all, his ‘favourite 
terms’ - , we will never be able to move the real analytic power of Peircean 
semiosis into the modern world. And that -  - is where I believe the focus 
should be. 

Edwina


> On Apr 12, 2024, at 6:29 AM, robert marty <robert.mart...@gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> List,
> I contribute to the debate with this note that I posted on Academia.edu a few 
> years ago ... at my peril ... I have not yet looked at tone/mark, but the 
> same methodology should make it possible to conclude that each of the six 
> types of token involves a tone/mark of a particular kind.
> https://www.academia.edu/61335079/Note_on_Signs_Types_and_Tokens
> Regards,
> Robert Marty
> Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy 
> fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty 
> <https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty>
> https://martyrobert.academia.edu/
> 
> 
> 
> Le ven. 12 avr. 2024 à 05:04, Jon Alan Schmidt <jonalanschm...@gmail.com 
> <mailto:jonalanschm...@gmail.com>> a écrit :
>> John, List:
>> 
>> JFS: As words, there is no logical difference between the words 'mark' and 
>> 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.
>> 
>> Again, the key difference is between Peirce's definition of "mark" in 
>> Baldwin's dictionary and his definition of "tone"--as well as "tuone," 
>> "tinge," and "potisign"--in various other places.
>> 
>> JFS: But some words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be 
>> considered ugly. They are certainly not memorable.
>> 
>> Peirce famously preferred an ugly word for his version of pragmatism so that 
>> it would be "safe from kidnappers." If being memorable is a criterion, then 
>> "tone" is superior to "mark" due to its alliteration with "token" and 
>> "type"; as Gary said, someone suggested to him "that the three all starting 
>> with the letter 't' perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device."
>> 
>> JFS: Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more often, mainly 
>> in obscure MSS. That is not a ringing endorsement.
>> 
>> It is not a mere claim that I made, it is an indisputable fact--"tone" is 
>> the only word that Peirce used in multiple places and at multiple times 
>> between 1906 and 1908 for the possible counterpart of existent "token" and 
>> necessitant "type." It is also the only one that was published during his 
>> lifetime (CP 4.537, 1906)--the others appear in Logic Notebook entries and 
>> the December 1908 letters to Lady Welby, with "mark" and "potisign" found 
>> solely in the latter, although she subsequently endorsed "tone." As someone 
>> once said, "She had a solid intuitive way of explaining principles that he 
>> tended to explain in ways that were more abstract and difficult to 
>> understand. Her influence enabled him to find simpler and more convincing 
>> explanations for his abstract ideas" 
>> (https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-02/msg00096.html).
>> 
>> JFS: That is not a scientific survey, but I could not find a single 
>> non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 'tone'. If anybody 
>> else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) one way or the 
>> other, please let us know.
>> 
>> Gary already provided anecdotal evidence to the contrary and expressed his 
>> personal preference for "tone." As always, my own priority is accurately 
>> understanding, helpfully explaining, and fruitfully building on Peirce's 
>> views by carefully studying and adhering to his words.
>> 
>> Regards,
>> 
>> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
>> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
>> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt 
>> <http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt 
>> <http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>
>> On Thu, Apr 11, 2024 at 6:10 PM John F Sowa <s...@bestweb.net 
>> <mailto:s...@bestweb.net>> wrote:
>>> Gary, Jon, List,
>>> 
>>> My note crossed in the mail with Gary's.  I responded to the previous notes 
>>> by Jon and Gary (q.v.).
>>> 
>>> My conclusion:  As words, there is no logical difference between the words 
>>> 'mark' and 'tone' as a term for a possible mark.   In fact, any word pulled 
>>> out of thin air could be chosen as a term for a possible mark.  But some 
>>> words, such as potisign are rather unusual and may even be considered ugly. 
>>>   They are certainly not memorable.
>>> 
>>> Peirce at one point suggested the word 'mark' as a word for 'possible 
>>> mark'.  That shows he was not fully convinced that 'tone' was the best word 
>>> for the future.  Jon made the claim that Peirce used the word 'tone' more 
>>> often, mainly in obscure MSS.  That is not a ringing endorsement.
>>> 
>>> But we must remember that Tony Jappy also chose the word 'mark' for the 
>>> triad (mark token type).   And he has devoted years of research to the 
>>> issues.  As I pointed out, authorities are not infallible, but they are 
>>> more likely to be authorities than T. C. Mits (The Common Man in the 
>>> street).
>>> 
>>> And I myself have been cited as an authority for quite a few issues in 
>>> logic, including Peirce's logic.  See https://jfsowa.com/pubs/ for 
>>> publications.   There are even more lecture slides.  (Copies upon request.)
>>> 
>>> But the ultimate judges for the vocabulary are the speakers of the future.  
>>> The overwhelming majority of knowledgeable logicians, linguists, and 
>>> philosophers who know the pair (token type) but not the first term, find 
>>> mark far more congenial and memorable than tone.  I discovered that point 
>>> while talking to them.  That is not a scientific survey, but I could not 
>>> find a single non-Peircean scholar who would even consider the word 'tone'. 
>>> 
>>> If anybody else has any further evidence (or just a personal preference) 
>>> one way or the other, please let us know.
>>> 
>>> John
>>> 
>>> From: "Gary Richmond" <gary.richm...@gmail.com 
>>> <mailto:gary.richm...@gmail.com>>
>>> List,
>>> 
>>> While at first I was sceptical of Jon's keeping this discussion going as it 
>>> has continued for some time now, yet this most recent post of his reminded 
>>> me that  the principal issue being considered has not been resolved unless 
>>> you want to accept John's word that it has been and, by the way, completely 
>>> along the lines of his analysis. In other words, the 'tone' v. 'mark' 
>>> question has been settled because John says it has and, so, there's no need 
>>> for further discussion.
>>> 
>>> I have followed this exchange very closely and find that Jon's 
>>> argumentation is bolstered by textual and other support. For example, 
>>> contra John, he has repeatedly demonstrated -- again, with more than 
>>> sufficient textual support - that any use of 'mark' consistent with 
>>> Peirce's Baldwin Dictionary definition is contrary to Peirce's discussion 
>>> of 'tone' (and related terms, such as. 'potisign'). For 'mark' is viewed by 
>>> Peirce as a kind of term and, so, decidedly not a possible sign. Indeed, 
>>> the very image that comes to my mind for 'mark' is always an existential 
>>> one, say a mark on a blackboard, or a beauty mark.
>>> 
>>> Conversely, as Jon has repeatedly shown, all of Peirce's definitions of a 
>>> possible sign include the idea that its being is a significant "quality of 
>>> feeling," a "Vague Quality," a sign that while "merely possible, [is] felt 
>>> to be positively possible." 
>>> 
>>> John says that when he uses 'mark' as having Peirce's meaning of a "Vague 
>>> Quality" that his listeners, typically not schooled in Peircean thought, 
>>> "find it quite congenial" and, so he uses it in all his talks and written 
>>> work. I can only say that that has not been my experience over the years. 
>>> For example, earlier this year I gave an invited talk at a session of the 
>>> George Santayana Society at the Eastern APA on the trichotomic structure of 
>>> Peirce's Classification of the Sciences where I found that in discussing 
>>> tone, token, type that my interlocutors -- almost none of whom were 
>>> familiar with Peirce's semeiotic -- found 'tone' to be most genial and, 
>>> indeed, one suggested that the three all starting with the letter 't' 
>>> perhaps constituted a kind of mnemonic device. Well, be that as it may, 
>>> that notion is certainly trivial (pun intended).
>>> 
>>> Again, it bears repeating that John's remark that, because Tony Jappy used 
>>> the term 'mark' rather than 'tone', he has adopted it is nothing but the 
>>> logical fallacy of an appeal to authority. I have had any number of 
>>> discussions with Peirceans over the past several years, none of whom have 
>>> faulted my use of 'tone' for that "merely possible" sign. Mark my words!
>>> 
>>> Furthermore, I have found Jon more than willing to learn from his 
>>> disagreements with others on the List. For example, in several of his 
>>> papers he has expressed appreciation for the engagement with several 
>>> Peirce-L members with whom he has 'contended' on the List, including John.  
>>> 
>>> And despite John's claim that having read Jon's post prior to this most 
>>> recent one and finding "nothing new," Jon has clearly shown that he in fact 
>>> did provide, and "for the first time," a list of all the passages where 
>>> Peirce uses not only 'tone', but its variants (such as 'tuone' and 
>>> 'potisgin'). John, on the other hand, has kept repeating his opinions with 
>>> little textual support.
>>> 
>>> So I ask each member of this forum who has an interest in this topic to 
>>> honestly weigh the arguments presented by Jon and John and determine for 
>>> themself who has made the stronger case, John for 'mark' or Jon for 'tone'. 
>>> Perhaps then we can put the matter to rest (at least for a time).
>>> 
>>> Best,
>>> 
>>> Gary Richmond
>> _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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