Re: The Higgs and SUSY vs the Multiverse

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Jul 2014, at 01:05, LizR wrote:


On 22 July 2014 23:19, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 22 Jul 2014, at 11:14, Richard Ruquist wrote:

I agree that it does not make any sense.
But complain to David Deusch who introduced the multiverse within  
the universe.
We now have two scientific definitions of multiverse and it is very  
confusing.

Richard
Well Tegmark made an interesting attempt to classify different  
notions of many universe, although it does not mention the MV  
(strings landscape---or does he?)


I think his level 2 or maybe 3 is post-inflationary bubbles which I  
believe are equivalent to the string landscape.


, and miss the comp many dreams. Normally all many-things should  
emerge from the many dreams if comp is true.


Well we know you and Tegmark aren't yet in tune regarding  
consciousness... :-)


We were in Tune on this, implicitly at least, when ha talk about QM  
and Everett MW.
I think we know now that Tegmark is not in tune with himself, after he  
wrote his weird paper on consciousness. But we know also that he does  
not take into account comp and the FPI into account, so miss that he  
has to extends Everett's embedding of the physicist in physics by the  
embedding of the mathematician in mathematics, and this in the same  
way, which leads to the measure problem.







The string landscape MV (thanks to Liz for the precision) is  
different but not incompatible with Everett MW, although this should  
lead to multi-multiverses.


Other terms don't quite seem to work. Metaverse, Omniverse,  
Multiplicity ... I quite like the Uberverse, which as far as I know  
I just made up, but some may disagree. I think Max T's level 4  
multiverse is sometimes called Platonia.


Poetically, but it is very naive. An expression like mathematical  
reality is something to be big to make sense. Mathematical logicians  
know that well. Then with comp the idea that there is more than  
elementary arithmetic is absolutely undecidable, if only by the hole  
dream argument.





If someone can sum up the relations between SUSY, Higgs, and the  
string landscape, I would perhaps be able to say more. If not I put  
the video and references on my already long videos and references  
list, and might, or not, comment later. it is a difficult subject.


I tried to ... to some extent ... in my last post.


I think we are in agreement, OK.

Bruno






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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The Higgs and SUSY vs the Multiverse

2014-07-24 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Jul 23, 2014 at 5:53 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 There should be an Everett style multiverse embedded in the string
 landscape universe.


Perhaps but that's not the only way it could happen, string theory could be
wrong and Everett still be right. Everett pointed out that Schrodinger's
Wave Equation seems to be saying that everything that could happen does
happen, and that seems to be what Andre Linde's theory of Eternal Inflation
is saying too. And that's why I thing it's so important to know if the
variation in the Big Bang polarization radiation that was announced in
March is real or not. If Linde is right then Everett probably is too.

 if our bubble in the string landscape is infinite (which I think it can
 be?) then it *itself* contains a MWI style multiverse,


Yes

 So we get a redundant infinity of identical universes (infinity
 squared ? ,Or cubed


Those are all the same sized infinity, to get a larger one you have to go
2^infinity.

  John K Clark

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal

David,

As I try to see if we disagree, or if it is just a problem of  
vocabulary, I will make comment which might, or not be like I am  
nitpicking, and that *might* be the case, and then I apologize.



On 23 Jul 2014, at 15:38, David Nyman wrote:

Recent discussions, mainly with Brent and Bruno, have really got me  
thinking again about the issues raised by CTM and the UDA. I'll try  
to summarise some of my thoughts in this post. The first thing to  
say, I think, is that the assumption of CTM is equivalent to  
accepting the existence of an effectively self-contained  
computationally-observable regime (COR).



My problem here is that COR is ambiguous. I don't know what you mean  
by sef-contained computationally-observable regime.
It seems to me that UD* *is* such a self-contained computable/ 
computational structure, and the existence of both the UD and UD* are  
*theorem* of arithmetic, which means that such a COR does not need to  
assume CTM (comp).








By its very definition, the COR sets the limits of possible physical  
observation or empirical discovery. In principle, any physical  
phenomenon, whatever its scale, could be brought under observation  
if only we had a big enough collider. But by the same token, no  
matter how big the collider, no such observable could escape its  
confinement within the limits of the COR.


I agree, but why? here a Peter Jones can say: not at all, to have  
something observable, you need consciousness, and to have  
consciousness you need a physical primitive reality.







If we accept that the existence of a COR is entailed by assuming  
CTM, we come naturally to the question of what might be doing the  
computation.


How could that not be answered by the existence of COR, or by  
arithmetic. We know that both the programs and their execution can be  
proved to exist in elementary arithmetic. The problem comes  
exclusively from the people who say that *a priori* the computation  
are not enough, and that they need to be implemented in the primitive  
physical reality (that they can't define, but the point is logically  
meaningful until step 8).





In terms of the UDA, by the time we get to Step 7, it should be  
obvious that, in principle, we could build a computer from  
primitive physical components that would effectively implement the  
infinite trace of the UD (UD*). Furthermore, if such a computer were  
indeed to be implemented, the COR would necessarily exist in its  
entirety somewhere within the infinite redundancy of that trace.


It would exist physically, and lead to the same measure problem,  
forcing the physicalist to bring up an hypothesis that the primitive  
physical universe is small to avoid the measure problem.




This realisation alone might well persuade us, on grounds of  
explanatory parsimony and the avoidance of somewhat strained or ad  
hoc reservations, to accept FAPP that UD*-COR. Should we be so  
persuaded, any putative underlying physical computer would have  
already become effectively redundant to further explanation.


Yes. At step seven, we can already use Occam, and abandon physicalism.  
At step 8, the move can still be done logically, but it is shown to be  
a god-of-the-gap move.






Notwithstanding this, we may still feel the need to retain  
reservations of practicability. Perhaps the physical universe isn't  
actually sufficiently robust to permit the building of such a  
computer?


To build it is not a problem, (I did it), but to run it for a  
sufficiently long time so that we have a measure problem is different.




Or, even if that were granted, could it not just be the case that no  
such computer actually exists?


Well, it exists like prime numbers exists. Same for his execution.  
Now, I doubt that in a physical universe we can run it *forever*.




Reservations of this sort can indeed be articulated, although  
worryingly, they may still seem to leave us rather vulnerable to  
being captured by Bostrom-type simulation scenarios.


This assume also the existence of computers, and physical computers.





The bottom line however seems to be this: Under CTM, can we justify  
the singularisation, or confinement, of a computation, and hence  
whatever is deemed to be observable in terms of that computation, to  
some particular physical computer (e.g. a brain)? More generally,  
can we limit all possibility of observation to a particular class of  
computations wholly delimited by the activity of a corresponding sub- 
class of physical objects (uniquely characterisable as physical  
computers) within the limits of a definitively physical universe?


That problem appears once we agree that a non physical computation can  
be as conscious as us, and that problems appears at step seven,  
including its solutions. It is because we will take all computations  
(going through our mental states) into account that we have a measure  
problem, which is the stabilization of physical laws problem. Of  

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread John Clark
On Tue, Jul 22, 2014 at 3:08 AM, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

 I don't think the ability to say I know (or believe) I am awake has
 anything to do with intelligence.


If so then it MUST be a byproduct of intelligence because otherwise it
would not have evolved, and yet it did at least once.

And by the way, when you go about your daily life do you really know that
you know things or do you just know things?   And do you really take the
trouble to know that you know that you know things? The iterations are
endless, but it all seems like a big waste of time to me.

  John K Clark

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Fwd: Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb
The funny thing about this is that Sean says it has increased my own personal credence in 
the correctness of the Everett approach to quantum mechanics from “pretty high” to 
“extremely high indeed.”


Yet his penultimate paragraph is essentially a statement of Fuchs Qbism:

We like this derivation in part because it treats probabilities as epistemic (statements 
about our knowledge of the world), not merely operational. Quantum probabilities are 
really credences — statements about the best degree of belief we can assign in conditions 
of uncertainty — rather than statements about truly stochastic dynamics or frequencies in 
the limit of an infinite number of outcomes. But these degrees of belief aren’t completely 
subjective in the conventional sense, either; there is a uniquely rational choice for how 
to assign them.


Brent


 Original Message 
Subject: 	[New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function 
Squared

Date:   Thu, 24 Jul 2014 15:21:04 +
From:   Sean Carroll donotre...@wordpress.com
To: meeke...@verizon.net



WordPress.com
Sean Carroll posted: One of the most profound and mysterious principles in all of physics 
is the Born Rule, named after Max Born. In quantum mechanics, particles don't have 
classical properties like position or momentum; rather, there is a wave function that 
assigns a (co



   New post on *Sean Carroll*



http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/?author=4  


   Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared
   
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/07/24/why-probability-in-quantum-mechanics-is-given-by-the-wave-function-squared/

by Sean Carroll http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/?author=4

One of the most profound and mysterious principles in all of physics is the Born Rule 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Born_rule, named after Max Born. In quantum mechanics 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/eternitytohere/quantum/, particles don't have 
classical properties like position or momentum; rather, there is a wave function 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function that assigns a (complex) number, called the 
amplitude, to each possible measurement outcome. The Born Rule is then very simple: it 
says that the probability of obtaining any possible measurement outcome is equal to the 
square of the corresponding amplitude. (The wave function is just the set of all the 
amplitudes.)


*Born Rule:* \mathrm{Probability}(x) = |\mathrm{amplitude}(x)|^2.

The Born Rule is certainly correct, as far as all of our experimental efforts have been 
able to discern. But why? Born himself kind of stumbled onto his Rule. Here is an excerpt 
from his 1926 paper 
http://hermes.ffn.ub.es/luisnavarro/nuevo_maletin/Born_1926_statistical_interpretation.pdf:


Born Rule 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/bornrule.jpeg

That's right. Born's paper was rejected at first, and when it was later accepted by 
another journal, he didn't even get the Born Rule right. At first he said the probability 
was equal to the amplitude, and only in an added footnote did he correct it to being the 
amplitude squared. And a good thing, too, since amplitudes can be negative or even imaginary!


The status of the Born Rule depends greatly on one's preferred formulation of quantum 
mechanics 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/05/29/quantum-mechanics-smackdown/. When 
we teach quantum mechanics to undergraduate physics majors, we generally give them a list 
of postulates that goes something like this:


1. Quantum states are represented by wave functions, which are vectors in a 
mathematical
   space called Hilbert space http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hilbert_space.
2. Wave functions evolve in time according to the Schrödinger equation
   http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schr%C3%B6dinger_equation.
3. The act of measuring a quantum system returns a number, known as the 
eigenvalue
   http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eigenvalues_and_eigenvectors of the quantity 
being
   measured.
4. The probability of getting any particular eigenvalue is equal to the square 
of the
   amplitude for that eigenvalue.
5. After the measurement is performed, the wave function collapses to a new 
state in
   which the wave function is localized precisely on the observed eigenvalue 
(as opposed
   to being in a superposition of many different possibilities).

It's an ungainly mess, we all agree. You see that the Born Rule is simply postulated right 
there, as #4. Perhaps we can do better.


Of course we can do better, since textbook quantum mechanics is an embarrassment 
http://www.washingtonpost.com/blogs/wonkblog/wp/2013/02/07/quantum-mechanics-is-an-embarrassment/. 
There are other formulations, and you know that my own favorite is Everettian 
(Many-Worlds) quantum mechanics 

Fwd: [New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb
This may clarify (or provoke) discussion of Moscow vs. Washington.  It's interesting that 
Carroll and Sebens use FPI and Sean says it increases his confidence in Everett's MWI.  
But in his penultimate paragraph he essentially lays out an endorsement of Fuchs QBism, 
which is generally seen as the instrumentalist alternative to MWI.


Brent


 Original Message 
Subject: 	[New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function 
Squared

Date:   Thu, 24 Jul 2014 15:21:04 +
From:   Sean Carroll donotre...@wordpress.com
To: meeke...@verizon.net



WordPress.com
Sean Carroll posted: One of the most profound and mysterious principles in all of physics 
is the Born Rule, named after Max Born. In quantum mechanics, particles don't have 
classical properties like position or momentum; rather, there is a wave function that 
assigns a (co



   New post on *Sean Carroll*



http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/?author=4  


   Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared
   
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/07/24/why-probability-in-quantum-mechanics-is-given-by-the-wave-function-squared/

by Sean Carroll http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/?author=4

One of the most profound and mysterious principles in all of physics is the Born Rule 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Born_rule, named after Max Born. In quantum mechanics 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/eternitytohere/quantum/, particles don't have 
classical properties like position or momentum; rather, there is a wave function 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function that assigns a (complex) number, called the 
amplitude, to each possible measurement outcome. The Born Rule is then very simple: it 
says that the probability of obtaining any possible measurement outcome is equal to the 
square of the corresponding amplitude. (The wave function is just the set of all the 
amplitudes.)


*Born Rule:* \mathrm{Probability}(x) = |\mathrm{amplitude}(x)|^2.

The Born Rule is certainly correct, as far as all of our experimental efforts have been 
able to discern. But why? Born himself kind of stumbled onto his Rule. Here is an excerpt 
from his 1926 paper 
http://hermes.ffn.ub.es/luisnavarro/nuevo_maletin/Born_1926_statistical_interpretation.pdf:


Born Rule 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/bornrule.jpeg

That's right. Born's paper was rejected at first, and when it was later accepted by 
another journal, he didn't even get the Born Rule right. At first he said the probability 
was equal to the amplitude, and only in an added footnote did he correct it to being the 
amplitude squared. And a good thing, too, since amplitudes can be negative or even imaginary!


The status of the Born Rule depends greatly on one's preferred formulation of quantum 
mechanics 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/05/29/quantum-mechanics-smackdown/. When 
we teach quantum mechanics to undergraduate physics majors, we generally give them a list 
of postulates that goes something like this:


1. Quantum states are represented by wave functions, which are vectors in a 
mathematical
   space called Hilbert space http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hilbert_space.
2. Wave functions evolve in time according to the Schrödinger equation
   http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schr%C3%B6dinger_equation.
3. The act of measuring a quantum system returns a number, known as the 
eigenvalue
   http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eigenvalues_and_eigenvectors of the quantity 
being
   measured.
4. The probability of getting any particular eigenvalue is equal to the square 
of the
   amplitude for that eigenvalue.
5. After the measurement is performed, the wave function collapses to a new 
state in
   which the wave function is localized precisely on the observed eigenvalue 
(as opposed
   to being in a superposition of many different possibilities).

It's an ungainly mess, we all agree. You see that the Born Rule is simply postulated right 
there, as #4. Perhaps we can do better.


Of course we can do better, since textbook quantum mechanics is an embarrassment 
http://www.washingtonpost.com/blogs/wonkblog/wp/2013/02/07/quantum-mechanics-is-an-embarrassment/. 
There are other formulations, and you know that my own favorite is Everettian 
(Many-Worlds) quantum mechanics 
http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/06/30/why-the-many-worlds-formulation-of-quantum-mechanics-is-probably-correct/. 
(I'm sorry I was too busy to contribute to the active comment thread on that post. On the 
other hand, a vanishingly small percentage of the 200+ comments actually addressed the 
point of the article, which was that the potential for many worlds is automatically there 
in the wave function no matter what formulation you favor. Everett simply takes them 
seriously, while alternatives need to go to extra efforts to erase them. As Ted Bunn 
argues 

Re: [New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared

2014-07-24 Thread David Nyman
On 24 July 2014 18:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

This may clarify (or provoke) discussion of Moscow vs. Washington.  It's
 interesting that Carroll and Sebens use FPI and Sean says it increases his
 confidence in Everett's MWI.  But in his penultimate paragraph he
 essentially lays out an endorsement of Fuchs QBism, which is generally seen
 as the instrumentalist alternative to MWI.


Brent, could you possibly summarise what you see as the essential
distinction between the CS and Fuchs alternatives for dummies?

David

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Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List

I did read Hoffstader years ago. An organ is not totally alike a social insect 
colony. The electrons are moved at upper Newtonian, rather then via neurons, 
saavy? You don't have your liver trailing down the street after you. 

Why does that make it a poor analogy?  Is there something essentialabout 
electrochemical potentials of axons?  Aren't neurons rewardedby retrieving 
and integrating information (which are justexcitations to them).

Have you not read Douglas Hofstader's conversation with anant-colony in 
Godel, Escher, and Bach?

Brent


 
 
 
-Original Message-
From: meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Tue, Jul 22, 2014 5:57 pm
Subject: Re: It Knows That It Knows


  

On 7/22/2014 2:45 PM, spudboy100 via  Everything List wrote:


Ant colonies are not hooked together by neurons  passing electrons, but yhe 
are integrated, by phermones, and  behavior, such as rewards for retrieving 
food. Bees are even more  this way. So its a poor analogy comparing a human 
with a termite  hive.

Why does that make it a poor analogy?  Is there something essential
about electrochemical potentials of axons?  Aren't neurons rewardedby 
retrieving and integrating information (which are justexcitations to them).

Have you not read Douglas Hofstader's conversation with anant-colony in 
Godel, Escher, and Bach?

Brent


 Now ant colonies, versus human cities is much more  accurate! Getting 
cosmic, do areas of spacetime have conscious,  self awareness? Do planck 
cells have this, and are they  interconnected? Do boltzmann brains have 
this? How intelligent  would they be? Could we communicate with such 
phenomenal minds? 
  
  -Original Message-
  From: meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
  To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: 22-Jul-2014 16:27:08 +
  Subject: Re: It Knows That It Knows
  
  

  
On 7/22/2014 11:57 AM,John Mikes wrote:
  
  

Bruno and Kim:  


what SELF would you consider in e.g. ants? if we  realize the 
highly merged (individualized?) group-self  - the answer is 
different from taking the present  individual (simplified DOWN 
to functional minimum  composition units) 'ant' and trying to 
assign  a 'self' to such partial(?)  entity. We 
may see the beginnings of such  communalization in human 
societies as well. We feel  as part of a larger unit in 
certain aspects. 

  

  
  
  A human is a colony of cells, pretty much like an ant colony.
  
  Brent
  


  

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Re: [New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb

On 7/24/2014 11:09 AM, David Nyman wrote:

On 24 July 2014 18:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

This may clarify (or provoke) discussion of Moscow vs. Washington. It's 
interesting
that Carroll and Sebens use FPI and Sean says it increases his confidence in
Everett's MWI.  But in his penultimate paragraph he essentially lays out an
endorsement of Fuchs QBism, which is generally seen as the instrumentalist
alternative to MWI.

Brent, could you possibly summarise what you see as the essential distinction between 
the CS and Fuchs alternatives for dummies?


I'd need to study CS's paper a little, I just read Sean's blog summary.  But Fuch's 
quantum Bayesianism says that the collapse of the wave function is just like the 
collapse of a classical probability distribution when we learn the value of the random 
variable.  It's purely epistemic.  It's a sort of instrumentalism.


Brent

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal

HI Jesse, David,

On 23 Jul 2014, at 18:49, Jesse Mazer wrote:

Had some trouble following your post (in part because I don't know  
all the acronyms), but are you talking about the basic problem of  
deciding which computations a particular physical process can be  
said to implement or instantiate? If so, see my post at http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list%40googlegroups.com/msg43484.html 
 and Bruno's response at http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list%40googlegroups.com/msg43489.html 
 . I think from Bruno's response that he agrees that there is a well- 
defined way of deciding whether one abstract computation implements/ 
instantiates some other abstract computation within itself (like  
if I have computation A which is a detailed molecular-level  
simulation of a physical computer, and the simulated computer is  
running another simpler computation B, then the abstract computation  
A can be said to implement computation B within itself).


So, why not adopt a Tegmark-like view where a physical universe is  
*nothing more* than a particular abstract computation, and that can  
give us a well-defined notion of which sub-computations are  
performed within it by various physical processes? This approach  
could also perhaps allow us to define the number of separate  
instances of a given sub-computation within the larger computation  
that we call the universe, giving some type of measure on  
different subcomputations within that computational universe (useful  
for things like Bostrom's self-sampling assumption, which in this  
case would say we should reason as if we were randomly chosen from  
all self-aware subcomputations). So for example, if many copies of a  
given AI program are run in parallel in a computational universe,  
that AI could have a larger measure within that computational  
universe than an AI program that is only ever run once within  
it...of course, this does not rule out the possibility that there  
are other parallel computational universes where the second  
program is run more often, as would be implied by Tegmark's thesis  
and also by Bruno's UDA. But there is still at least the theoretical  
possibility that the multiverse is false and that only one unique  
computational universe exists, so the idea that all possible  
universes/computations are equally real cannot be said to follow  
logically from COMP.




To have the computations, all you need is a sigma_1 complete theory  
and/or a Turing universal machine, or system, or language.


It would take many pages to describe formally elementary arithmetic  
(including the formal predicate calculus), which is indeed already  
such a sigma_1 complete system/machine/theory, but a simpler one can  
be given in less line, like the Putnam-Davis-Robinson-Matiyazevic-Jone  
universal diophantine polynomials. Or the combinators, whose sigma_1  
complete theory is given by the axioms


x = x
x = y  y = z  -. x = z

xy = xz / y = z
yx = zx / y = z

Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

(I recall that a combinator is either K or S, or a combination of  
combinators (X, Y), so a combinator is for example


(K (K S)) S) which we abbreviate K(KS)S as we can suppress all the  
left parenthesis for ease of readability.


You can compute ((K K) K), or better KKK. By the second axiom you get  
KKK = K. But K(KK) does not match any axioms, and thus stay calm:  
K(KK) gives K(KK) as a stopping result.


For the theory of everything, we need no more. Oh, well to avoid  
having just one combinators, you can add the axiom

 ~(K = S),
but for the ontology it is not really needed. It is a Turing universal  
language, and all universal interpreters can be coded through a  
combinator. In particular, you can easily find combinators which  
mirrors faithfully the sigma_1 complete part of arithmetic, like you  
can find combinators which solves the PDRMJ universal diophantine  
polynomial equation.



In that theory, we can define those very theories formally, and they  
all are instances of universal combinators, or universal numbers. A  
computation is what a number do relatively to a universal number. But  
by the FPI, a physical computation will be the one done, strictly  
speaking, by infinities of universal (and non universal also) numbers/ 
combinators.


The absolute (relative measure) laws does not depend of choosing  
arithmetic, or combinators, that is, the laws of physics will not  
depend on the choice of the universal numbers. But the winner, or  
winners which support(s) and stabilize(s) your current state of mind  
is unknown, today. Except that when you interview the löbian  
machine, which are those who knows that they are sigma_1 complete,  
that they know that they are Turing universal, then you get that the  
winner has some quantum favor, as the many dreams in the combinatoric  
reality (the FPI on the sigma_1 complete reality).


David,  I think that with the combinators, I might more quickly  
explains different senses of going 

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Jul 2014, at 20:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/23/2014 9:20 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Intelligence is more simple. It is, I think the natural state of  
the virgin universal machine.


What's a UTM with no program?


A Gift of God.

It is a universal machine virgin of any program. A computer without  
application. An interpreter without program, nor data.


Some years ago, you could buy them at the store, and program them at  
their basic level, in binary, or in hexadecimal. Or, in assembly  
language, or in any virtual universal numbers they will get. Today  
they are full of applications, whose codes are the numbers that the  
universal number, the UTM, will emulate.


From the 1p view, It is you, I think.
But, like the modern computer, the universality is hidden by the  
forest of applications. You might remember what it is, to be a UTM  
without programs, by taking holiday (a good approximation, perhaps) or  
by doing a sense deprivation experience, or in the sleep, or with  
dissociative technics, or just letting go.



A universal number is a number which can compute all the phi_i. It is  
itself a certain u, computing a universal function phi_u:


phi_u(i,j) = phi_i(j).  For all i, j.

The data of the universal program u is
i, the program for phi_i,
and j, the data of the program i that u will imitate on j.

i,j is a number coding the giving of i and j.

Here the UTM without program is u itself.

The 3p-self of u is u. The 3p activity of u is given by the function  
phi_u. The 1p self of u is, well, like I describe above, it is you,  
without thinking to much and letting go the mundane representational  
identifications.


If you try, unplug the phone, as the ringing of a phone is already a  
data/programs stream enough to prevent the remembering of the innocent  
time without applications, or, in case you got it, to wake you up to  
the rich but hard reality of the UTM with programs, tasks, news,  
bills, etc.


Bruno







Brent

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Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Jul 2014, at 20:35, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/23/2014 10:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 22 Jul 2014, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/22/2014 12:08 AM, Kim Jones wrote:



On 22 Jul 2014, at 2:55 am, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com  
wrote:


 What part of your brain is more evolved than a cat's brain  
that allows you to say I know?


I'm just guessing but maybe the Neocortex because it's the  
biggest anatomical difference between a cat's brain and mine.  
But I do know one thing for certain, whatever part it is if it  
evolved then it effects behavior; and if it effects behavior  
then the Turing Test works for consciousness and not just  
intelligence.


 John K Clark



Are you saying that there is no consciousness without  
intelligence? I believe (up to here at least) consciousness can  
exist minus intelligence.


Also, many things going on in the brain affect behaviour without  
necessarily having any impact on consciousness at all.


I don't think the ability to say I know (or believe) I am awake  
has anything to do with intelligence. But it does require  
consciousness (even if asleep and dreaming that you said that.)


What I am driving at is that it is vaguely impossible to  
understand anything 1p in a 3p manner.


I think that is based on an unexamined idea of understand.   
Suppose I could monitor your brain with a super-fMRI and after  
long experimentation and mapping I could 'see' every thought,  
including distinguishing which were conscious and which weren't.   
And suppose using this information I could create a functional  
model of your brain so that given the various inputs and  
environmental effects, I could predict exactly what you would  
think, at least a few minutes in advance.  And further, using this  
knowledge, I could use electrostimulation to cause you to have  
specific thoughts.  And having attained this level of knowledge of  
many human brains, I can now make brains to order having various  
characteristics: musical ability, empathy, humor,...


Now you will say I have not understood anything 1p (in fact my  
model predicts you will), but I would reply, OK, what else is  
there to understand?



The difference between being the one knowing that he is in  
Washington and believing that he has a copy in Moscow with being  
the one knowing that he is in Moscow and believing that he has a  
copy in Washington.


That difference is easily modelled in the physics and the fact that  
one will see Moscow and one will see Washington and each will  
remember Helsinki.  I don't understand what difference you think is  
not understood.


The description you give is pure 3p symmetrical. But now you have  
agreed that both diaries will describe an asymmetrical event: one will  
contain I am in W and not in M, and the other will contain I am in M  
and not in W.


In the 3p view, the two diaries have not break the symmetry. But all  
diaries describes the breaking of that symmetry.


You miss the experience of the guys, and the fact that if you believe  
we are machine, then we have to justify the stability of the  
observable from the solution of the measure problem, on the sigma_1  
sentences (with oracles)








Once you take it into account you can, by some work, understand  
that such a soul, subject, person, is not that easily related to  
a physical process. With comp, it is automatically related with  
infinitely computations, and that leads to interesting problems in  
math suggestion new ways to conceive the things rationally.


You miss, and perhaps David's too (?), the fact that above a  
threshold of relative complexity, the lower level is not relevant  
for the description of the higher level. It would be like asking  
why Obama has been elected?, and getting back the answer:  
everything followed the SWE.


That's David's explanation=elimination, not mine.


OK. It is the point I agree with you, which indeed makes comp closer  
to materialism type of reductionism, except it reduce everything to  
your favorite universal number, and then describe the infinitely  
complex relations that numbers can develop above their substitution  
level, as from below they are confronted to a infinite sum of machine.








Then you miss the *key* thing (well for those interested in the  
mind-body problem) that many people miss it; but not David. Nor the  
Ancients. It the mode of the subject, the hero behind the mask. Who  
is he?


The modern seems to want to eliminate it.


I want to show that it has no answer in the terms it is asked.



(smile). Well, here I agree with David.

Honestly, I think that is a physicalist prejudice. I think you are  
just not really interested in that subject (pun included).









Thanks to incompleteness, machines already get refractory to that  
elimination, and known the 1p-3p difference.


Here, it is that once you take the higher level description into  
account, with their relative independence, you have also to take  
into 

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Jul 2014, at 21:59, David Nyman wrote:


On 23 July 2014 18:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

You miss, and perhaps David's too (?), the fact that above a  
threshold of relative complexity, the lower level is not relevant  
for the description of the higher level. It would be like asking  
why Obama has been elected?, and getting back the answer:  
everything followed the SWE.


Hmm...Well, I originally suggested that the knower *couldn't* simply  
be reduced to computation or numbers, unlike the case of physical  
reducibility. In my view, the presence of a 1p knower is what  
retrospectively justifies realism about higher-level 3p structures  
with which the knower is to be associated. To see what I mean, let's  
assume that there is some putative ontology that can't in principle  
be used to justify the presence of such a knower. Any higher-level  
scenario conceived in terms of such an ontology is then vulnerable  
to a particularly pernicious species of zombie reductionism. It  
isn't merely that the radical absence of first person-hood leaves in  
its wake nothing but zombies with 3p functional bodies but no  
consciousness. It's much more radical than that. The zombie body  
is now radically lacking in existence-for-itself. Consequently,  
the distinction between any such putative body and its ontological  
reduction is a differentiation without a difference. To put it  
another way, there is nobody present for whom it could represent a  
difference.


It still exist, or the difference 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... will need  
itself a knower to make sense. But with comp, we don't need more than  
the elementary arithmetic truth, to eventually make a knower by  
filtering the truth by a body or a representational set of beliefs.


Rough artificial cops on the road, made in woods are zombies, but  
their existence still makes senses in the 3p, for a putative observer  
present of not.


We the computational histories existe logically before the  
consciousness flux differentiate into knower interpreting themselves,  
if we want use the computation as defined in the usual 3p theoretical  
computer science.






I realise this may be difficult to accept, for example in the case  
of Deep Blue that you posed to me. However, imagine re-posing this  
case with respect to an ontology with which (let us assume) a knower  
could not *in principle* be associated.


That might not be as easy as you think, but let us see.




In that case there could be no effective distinction between Deep  
Blue and its physical reduction,


Why? That's not true. In UD* Deep blue has the time to play basically  
all chess games, perhaps even with all humans, much before the UD get  
the simulation of our good real blue at the level of the atoms of  
its late real incarnation.


Even in the 3p, Deep blue is already more in its code, goal,  
strategies, examples, and high level skills, like his elementary  
belief in a the token of the game, the position on the chessboard.  
Even that abstract guy would survive, if we implement it in the  
Babbage machine. It is not a knower in the comp sense, because it has  
no well defined set of beliefs that he can express, but it might  
already experience something, hard to say without looking at the code  
(I think it is still in large part brut force, and that it does not  
represent itself to play, so we have not enough to apply Theaetetus).






since we have ruled out, by assumption, the possibility of persons  
to whom this could represent a difference.


Except the difference between being, and not being, relatively to some  
universal reality.


The soul has a third person origin, even God has a third person  
origin, as the outer God is a complete 3p reality (arithmetical  
truth, or the sigma_1 part).





What might prevent us from seeing this is that we can't help  
imagining the proposed scenario from a God's-eye perspective. God  
then takes the role of the knower and sees that Deep Blue is still  
there. Thus we have unwittingly justified our ascription of Deep  
Blue to some aspect of the generalised ontology by divine  
retrospection.



That makes sense. The outer God gave rise to the inner God which  
contemplate the outer God, and eventually they can join, and separate  
again, in the course of many lives, inside and in between people.


With comp the outer god, the ontological basic reality is a 3p  
structure, just enough infinite. It is an open question if this is  
conscious, and willing. Plotinus also has difficulty there. I guess  
it is the abramanic jump, ... open question. I search.


I am rereading the Quran and the Bhagavad Gita, it might help for this.

Bruno





David

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Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb

On 7/24/2014 1:37 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 23 Jul 2014, at 20:35, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/23/2014 10:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 22 Jul 2014, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/22/2014 12:08 AM, Kim Jones wrote:



On 22 Jul 2014, at 2:55 am, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com 
mailto:johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:



 What part of your brain is more evolved than a cat's brain that allows 
you to
say I know?


I'm just guessing but maybe the Neocortex because it's the biggest anatomical 
difference between a cat's brain and mine. But I do know one thing for certain, 
whatever part it is if it evolved then it effects behavior; and if it effects 
behavior then the Turing Test works for consciousness and not just intelligence.


 John K Clark



Are you saying that there is no consciousness without intelligence? I believe (up to 
here at least) consciousness can exist minus intelligence.


Also, many things going on in the brain affect behaviour without necessarily having 
any impact on consciousness at all.


I don't think the ability to say I know (or believe) I am awake has anything to do 
with intelligence. But it does require consciousness (even if asleep and dreaming 
that you said that.)


What I am driving at is that it is vaguely impossible to understand anything 1p in a 
3p manner.


I think that is based on an unexamined idea of understand.  Suppose I could monitor 
your brain with a super-fMRI and after long experimentation and mapping I could 'see' 
every thought, including distinguishing which were conscious and which weren't.  And 
suppose using this information I could create a functional model of your brain so 
that given the various inputs and environmental effects, I could predict exactly what 
you would think, at least a few minutes in advance.  And further, using this 
knowledge, I could use electrostimulation to cause you to have specific thoughts.  
And having attained this level of knowledge of many human brains, I can now make 
brains to order having various characteristics: musical ability, empathy, humor,...


Now you will say I have not understood anything 1p (in fact my model predicts you 
will), but I would reply, OK, what else is there to understand?



The difference between being the one knowing that he is in Washington and believing 
that he has a copy in Moscow with being the one knowing that he is in Moscow and 
believing that he has a copy in Washington.


That difference is easily modelled in the physics and the fact that one will see Moscow 
and one will see Washington and each will remember Helsinki.  I don't understand what 
difference you think is not understood.


The description you give is pure 3p symmetrical. But now you have agreed that both 
diaries will describe an asymmetrical event: one will contain I am in W and not in M, 
and the other will contain I am in M and not in W.


In the 3p view, the two diaries have not break the symmetry. But all diaries describes 
the breaking of that symmetry.


So what? It is a result easily predicted by my physical model.



You miss the experience of the guys, and the fact that if you believe we are machine, 
then we have to justify the stability of the observable from the solution of the measure 
problem, on the sigma_1 sentences (with oracles)


No, you have leaped a big gap from believe we are a machine to all the conclusions of 
the UDA.  I still don't know what you mean by the experience of the guys.  Ex hypothesi 
my physical model predicts exactly what each one will do and say, including reports of 
this experience and non-verbal signals.  So I think you just saying I am missing the 
qualia - but that's the part that I think it is unreasonable to ask for an explanation 
of.  In what terms can it be explained - I'd say none.  And I don't think your explanation 
in terms of computation, while different and interesting, is any more complete than my 
physical one.


Brent









Once you take it into account you can, by some work, understand that such a soul, 
subject, person, is not that easily related to a physical process. With comp, it is 
automatically related with infinitely computations, and that leads to interesting 
problems in math suggestion new ways to conceive the things rationally.


You miss, and perhaps David's too (?), the fact that above a threshold of relative 
complexity, the lower level is not relevant for the description of the higher level. 
It would be like asking why Obama has been elected?, and getting back the answer: 
everything followed the SWE.


That's David's explanation=elimination, not mine.


OK. It is the point I agree with you, which indeed makes comp closer to materialism 
type of reductionism, except it reduce everything to your favorite universal number, 
and then describe the infinitely complex relations that numbers can develop above their 
substitution level, as from below they are confronted to a infinite sum of machine.








Then you miss the *key* thing (well 

Re: The Higgs and SUSY vs the Multiverse

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
On 25 July 2014 02:38, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wed, Jul 23, 2014 at 5:53 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

  There should be an Everett style multiverse embedded in the string
 landscape universe.


 Perhaps but that's not the only way it could happen, string theory could
 be wrong and Everett still be right.


Sure. I meant should - given that both theories are correct.


 Everett pointed out that Schrodinger's Wave Equation seems to be saying
 that everything that could happen does happen, and that seems to be what
 Andre Linde's theory of Eternal Inflation is saying too. And that's why I
 thing it's so important to know if the variation in the Big Bang
 polarization radiation that was announced in March is real or not. If Linde
 is right then Everett probably is too.


They may even become the same thing expressed differently. I am also
looking forward to whether BICEP2 is supported by further observation.


  if our bubble in the string landscape is infinite (which I think it
 can be?) then it *itself* contains a MWI style multiverse,


 Yes

  So we get a redundant infinity of identical universes (infinity
 squared ? ,Or cubed


 Those are all the same sized infinity, to get a larger one you have to go
 2^infinity.

 Yes, indeed. And the redundancy doesn't help with any measure problems
(although I suspect those ARE a limitation of human maths or at least
something we have yet to understand. Maybe we need another Cantor...)

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread Alberto G. Corona
Cultural determism is incompatible with natural selection. That was
plainly demonstrated by Symons in his book The evolution of human
sexuality ,but it is common sense among evolutionists of any kind.

Suppose that  human culture determines human behaviour. Then suppose a
mutant that use culture to manipulate others in order to increase his
own reproductive succes, so that for example manipulate others for
breeding his own kids. then this mutant very fast substitute the
culturally manipulable individuals.

That´s all. it is simple . It´s nt?   Cultural determinism is not a
evolutionarily  stable strategy. Period.

Thanks for your attention and bye.

2014-07-19 13:52 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com:
 On Fri, Jul 18, 2014 at 11:43 PM, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 There are optimimums toward what we aim to.
 That a mother kill his son because she don´t feel capable to breed him
 does not man that this is as good as not killing him and having enoug
 resources and support to carry along. Both things are natural and
 adaptive. but the former is bad and the other is good. Anyone can
 distinguish between both.


 I can distinguish between feeling good and feeling bad. I prefer feeling
 good. Unfortunately for me, it is rarely clear which actions make me feel
 good in the long term. Exercise seems to work better than other, more
 metaphysical prescriptions.

 The world is full of advice on how to be good and feel good. I tried quite
 a few, and they rarely work. What usually works is self-discovery through
 deliberate personal inquiry. I suspect that if you are sufficiently wise,
 you refrain from giving advice -- live and let live.

 I was forced to go to catholic school for 6 years. They tried to teach me
 what was good and bad. I never felt so miserable. Here I agree with you:
 possibly we have some evolutionary mechanism that makes us feel overt
 dominance as pain. Some people are forced to endure that pain until they
 get used to it, I was lucky enough to be able to escape it.

 Abortion doesn't really affect me. I'll have to be honest: I don't care. I
 don't feel anything about it. Maybe I would if I was a parent, I don't
 know. My parents were strongly agains abortion, so I have to assume this is
 just my natural response. I am not a psychopath, I feel strong empathy for
 certain types of human suffering. For example, seeing homeless and/or
 mentally ill people affects me emotionally in a quite strong fashion.



 Societies are similar. Of course, they can go from good to bad. And of
 course that as humans we have prefered states. Don´t you?


 Yes, but my preferred states appear to be quite different from those of
 other people. Diversity seems to be intrinsic to the human condition. So I
 am very suspicious of broad claims.



 I don´t know what you don´t understand , neither what this question
 has in common whith what I said above.


 You say, for example, that cultural determinism has been refuted. But I
 don't think this accurate. I claim that such conclusion comes from a
 misunderstanding of what evolution is and what it produces.



 2014-07-18 20:24 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com:
  Alberto,
 
  What I don't understand in your reasoning is how you can take evolution
 as
  the ultimate theory on humans behavior and, at the same time, believe
 that
  culture is becoming degenerate and that we should personally take stock
 and
  do something about it.
 
  Surely these new tribes that you despise are also a product of
  evolution?
 
  You seem to anthropomorphize evolution, as if it had some goal or
 preferred
  state. Evolution is a self-referential, self-adaptive process. It can
  generate mind-boggling complexity, yet you seem to believe that
  organisms
  susceptible to cultural determinism are not on the table.
 
  It is also orders of magnitude slower than our brains.
 
  Cheers
  Telmo.
 
  On Fri, Jul 18, 2014 at 7:44 PM, Alberto G. Corona
  agocor...@gmail.com
  wrote:
 
  Additionally,
 
  I don´t know how to remark that you systematically forget  the notion
  that the rejection of God as a coverup for the rejection of God´s
  creation, a rejection of the current state of nature and society. If
 that
  were not the case, it would not make sense the rejection of something
  with
  no effects watsoever in life.
 
  For the atheist, God's creation is nothing but the poisonous effects
  in the minds of people, so that they do not show (epic fanfares start
  to sound) the complete unfolding of human potentialities
 
  But that cultural determinism has been refuted time ago, despite the
  fact that it remain in fashion and gives comfortable seats in politics
  and the university. Gender studies, gender politics etc etc etc. But
  it has been refuted. It is just a matter of taking seriously natural
  selection and applying it to the human being.  Natural laws are not
  compatible with cultural determinism. Period.
 
  You can take a look at the 

Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
On 25 July 2014 10:21, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com wrote:

 Cultural determism is incompatible with natural selection.


Pardon my ignorance, but what is cultural determinism? (Or what would it
be, if there was such a thing?)

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
Oh, OK, WIkipedia! (oops!)

*Cultural determinism* is the belief that the culture in which we are
raised determines who we are at emotional and behavioral levels. This
supports the theory that environmental influences dominate who we are
instead of biologically inherited traits.

That sounds a bit like blank-slateism, the idea that humans are somehow
divorced from their genetic inheritance and can be adapted to any purpose
via acculturalism, if that's the word. I generally feel this is untrue,
partly due to twin studies and so on, and partly because I'm not sure what
it would mean if it was true... however, obviously culture has an
*influence* on people. If you're born in 1930 you probably think the
Beatles ruined popular music, or something. In 1940, you think the
opposite. And so on.



On 25 July 2014 10:37, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 25 July 2014 10:21, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com wrote:

 Cultural determism is incompatible with natural selection.


 Pardon my ignorance, but what is cultural determinism? (Or what would it
 be, if there was such a thing?)


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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread Alberto G. Corona
Too much time lost with people that make his imaginary victimization
the justification for anything.  I attract no girls? that´s because
religion. Am I mean and not very intelligent? Tha´ts because
capitalism. Do I have a ugly looking face? That is because the Church.

 And too much diversity syrup makes me vomit

2014-07-25 0:21 GMT+02:00, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com:
 Cultural determism is incompatible with natural selection. That was
 plainly demonstrated by Symons in his book The evolution of human
 sexuality ,but it is common sense among evolutionists of any kind.

 Suppose that  human culture determines human behaviour. Then suppose a
 mutant that use culture to manipulate others in order to increase his
 own reproductive succes, so that for example manipulate others for
 breeding his own kids. then this mutant very fast substitute the
 culturally manipulable individuals.

 That´s all. it is simple . It´s nt?   Cultural determinism is not a
 evolutionarily  stable strategy. Period.

 Thanks for your attention and bye.

 2014-07-19 13:52 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com:
 On Fri, Jul 18, 2014 at 11:43 PM, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 There are optimimums toward what we aim to.
 That a mother kill his son because she don´t feel capable to breed him
 does not man that this is as good as not killing him and having enoug
 resources and support to carry along. Both things are natural and
 adaptive. but the former is bad and the other is good. Anyone can
 distinguish between both.


 I can distinguish between feeling good and feeling bad. I prefer feeling
 good. Unfortunately for me, it is rarely clear which actions make me feel
 good in the long term. Exercise seems to work better than other, more
 metaphysical prescriptions.

 The world is full of advice on how to be good and feel good. I tried
 quite
 a few, and they rarely work. What usually works is self-discovery through
 deliberate personal inquiry. I suspect that if you are sufficiently wise,
 you refrain from giving advice -- live and let live.

 I was forced to go to catholic school for 6 years. They tried to teach me
 what was good and bad. I never felt so miserable. Here I agree with you:
 possibly we have some evolutionary mechanism that makes us feel overt
 dominance as pain. Some people are forced to endure that pain until they
 get used to it, I was lucky enough to be able to escape it.

 Abortion doesn't really affect me. I'll have to be honest: I don't care.
 I
 don't feel anything about it. Maybe I would if I was a parent, I don't
 know. My parents were strongly agains abortion, so I have to assume this
 is
 just my natural response. I am not a psychopath, I feel strong empathy
 for
 certain types of human suffering. For example, seeing homeless and/or
 mentally ill people affects me emotionally in a quite strong fashion.



 Societies are similar. Of course, they can go from good to bad. And of
 course that as humans we have prefered states. Don´t you?


 Yes, but my preferred states appear to be quite different from those of
 other people. Diversity seems to be intrinsic to the human condition. So
 I
 am very suspicious of broad claims.



 I don´t know what you don´t understand , neither what this question
 has in common whith what I said above.


 You say, for example, that cultural determinism has been refuted. But I
 don't think this accurate. I claim that such conclusion comes from a
 misunderstanding of what evolution is and what it produces.



 2014-07-18 20:24 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com:
  Alberto,
 
  What I don't understand in your reasoning is how you can take
  evolution
 as
  the ultimate theory on humans behavior and, at the same time, believe
 that
  culture is becoming degenerate and that we should personally take
  stock
 and
  do something about it.
 
  Surely these new tribes that you despise are also a product of
  evolution?
 
  You seem to anthropomorphize evolution, as if it had some goal or
 preferred
  state. Evolution is a self-referential, self-adaptive process. It can
  generate mind-boggling complexity, yet you seem to believe that
  organisms
  susceptible to cultural determinism are not on the table.
 
  It is also orders of magnitude slower than our brains.
 
  Cheers
  Telmo.
 
  On Fri, Jul 18, 2014 at 7:44 PM, Alberto G. Corona
  agocor...@gmail.com
  wrote:
 
  Additionally,
 
  I don´t know how to remark that you systematically forget  the notion
  that the rejection of God as a coverup for the rejection of God´s
  creation, a rejection of the current state of nature and society. If
 that
  were not the case, it would not make sense the rejection of something
  with
  no effects watsoever in life.
 
  For the atheist, God's creation is nothing but the poisonous effects
  in the minds of people, so that they do not show (epic fanfares start
  to sound) the complete unfolding of human potentialities
 
  But that cultural determinism has 

Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List





 From: Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com


And too much diversity syrup makes me vomit

Seems you choose to do much of your vomiting on this list; is there some reason 
you feel so compelled to share your vomit?

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb
And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural selection' - which 
is natural.


Brent

On 7/24/2014 3:42 PM, LizR wrote:

Oh, OK, WIkipedia! (oops!)

*Cultural determinism*is the belief that the culture in which we are raised determines 
who we are at emotional and behavioral levels. This supports the theory that 
environmental influences dominate who we are instead of biologically inherited traits.


That sounds a bit like blank-slateism, the idea that humans are somehow divorced from 
their genetic inheritance and can be adapted to any purpose via acculturalism, if that's 
the word. I generally feel this is untrue, partly due to twin studies and so on, and 
partly because I'm not sure what it would mean if it was true... however, obviously 
culture has an /influence/ on people. If you're born in 1930 you probably think the 
Beatles ruined popular music, or something. In 1940, you think the opposite. And so on.




On 25 July 2014 10:37, LizR lizj...@gmail.com mailto:lizj...@gmail.com 
wrote:

On 25 July 2014 10:21, Alberto G. Corona agocor...@gmail.com
mailto:agocor...@gmail.com wrote:

Cultural determism is incompatible with natural selection.


Pardon my ignorance, but what is cultural determinism? (Or what would it 
be, if
there was such a thing?)


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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
On 25 July 2014 11:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural
 selection' - which is natural.


What is 'cultural selection' ?

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List





 From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
Sent: Thursday, July 24, 2014 4:49 PM
Subject: Re: Atheist
 


On 25 July 2014 11:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural 
selection' - which is natural.


What is 'cultural selection' ?

An ape figures out how to insert a palm frond down into a termite nest and is 
able to harvest a bonanza of good termite protein... soon other apes in the 
vicinity begin mimicking the original creative ape... with some of them 
learning how to perform this new neat trick (others ignoring it and still 
others failing to master the new skill)... in time -- if compelling enough --  
the idea spreads throughout the larger grouping of culturally inter-acting apes 
and many of the members of the larger inter-acting group learn the new valuable 
technique mother apes (who have mastered the termite feeding learned 
behavior) begin teaching their own offspring this new valuable survival skill. 
After some generations the culturally learned technique is firmly established 
in this particular ape sub-culture, while remaining absent in other ape 
sub-cultures of the same species that have not been exposed to this new 
cultural evolution.
A successful *cultural innovation* will spread (or conversely fail to 
propagate) in a similar manner (through a different modality of course) as 
biologically encoded evolution.

Good ideas -- i.e. those with high survival fitness -- will tend to spread 
through an interacting group of individuals in a given culture, who are in 
fairly close contact with each other. Sometimes bad ideas will spread, but it 
is rarer.


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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
On 25 July 2014 12:48, 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

   --
  *From:* LizR lizj...@gmail.com
 *To:* everything-list@googlegroups.com
 *Sent:* Thursday, July 24, 2014 4:49 PM
 *Subject:* Re: Atheist

 On 25 July 2014 11:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural
 selection' - which is natural.


 What is 'cultural selection' ?

 An ape figures out how to insert a palm frond down into a termite nest and
 is able to harvest a bonanza of good termite protein... soon other apes in
 the vicinity begin mimicking the original creative ape... with some of
 them learning how to perform this new neat trick (others ignoring it and
 still others failing to master the new skill)... in time -- if compelling
 enough --  the idea spreads throughout the larger grouping of culturally
 inter-acting apes and many of the members of the larger inter-acting group
 learn the new valuable technique mother apes (who have mastered the
 termite feeding learned behavior) begin teaching their own offspring this
 new valuable survival skill. After some generations the culturally learned
 technique is firmly established in this particular ape sub-culture, while
 remaining absent in other ape sub-cultures of the same species that have
 not been exposed to this new cultural evolution.
 A successful *cultural innovation* will spread (or conversely fail to
 propagate) in a similar manner (through a different modality of course) as
 biologically encoded evolution.

 Good ideas -- i.e. those with high survival fitness -- will tend to spread
 through an interacting group of individuals in a given culture, who are in
 fairly close contact with each other.


I agree that this would have been useful in a situation like that. Do you
think this is still happening in Western culture? A lot of memes appear to
not have any specific survival value, although some are undoubtedly useful.
But the vast majority seem to just be what happens to be fashionable at the
moment - which is often the result of the whole meme thing having been
hijacked to benefit a few individuals.


 Sometimes bad ideas will spread, but it is rarer.

 I can think of a few which have negative reproductive / survival value but
have nevertheless spread, especially religious ones.

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread meekerdb

On 7/24/2014 4:49 PM, LizR wrote:

On 25 July 2014 11:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural 
selection' -
which is natural.


What is 'cultural selection' ?


I think there are two kinds.  One comes from competition between cultures. Supplanting one 
culture by another - as Engish culture supplanted aboriginal culture in Australia. The 
other is the influence of a culture on the reproductive success of individuals, e.g. being 
a great rock singer is good for your reproductive success in modern America.  Doesn't help 
in Saudi Arabia.


Brent

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Re: Atheist

2014-07-24 Thread LizR
On 25 July 2014 13:32, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/24/2014 4:49 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 25 July 2014 11:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  And in any case 'natural selection' would just be replaced by 'cultural
 selection' - which is natural.


  What is 'cultural selection' ?


 I think there are two kinds.  One comes from competition between cultures.
 Supplanting one culture by another - as Engish culture supplanted
 aboriginal culture in Australia. The other is the influence of a culture on
 the reproductive success of individuals, e.g. being a great rock singer is
 good for your reproductive success in modern America.  Doesn't help in
 Saudi Arabia.


Yes, that seems reasonable. But it's mainly to do with relatively unusual
situations, at least in our current society - cultural clashes and
behavioural extremes. I'm not sure what the connection is with cultural
determinism, which seems more to do with what is considered acceptable
behaviour and suchlike - i.e. determining general day to day behaviour,
rather than what happens in exceptional situations.

This is however a subject with an awful lot of grey areas...

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