> 1) if conventional physics gives an adequate causal account,does and
> experience is explained
> with New Physics, does that make experience epiphenomenal?
In my view, physics, experience, and the underlying relation between
them are all co-phenomenal and co-epiphenomenal
> 2) What is it about the mathematical structures and functions of your
> Physics that makes it more apt for describing experience than the
> Old Physics?
Because it recognizes that experience cannot be described in third
person terms, and that this fact is not a problem. Rather, the
compulsion to turn it into a problem is explained by the understanding
that we ourselves are inherently biased because we cannot get outside
of the sense of our own collective experience. Instead, we see the
function of privatized phenomenology as a natural feature of, as well
as a function of matter.
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