> 1) if conventional physics gives an adequate causal account,does and > experience is explained > with New Physics, does that make experience epiphenomenal?
In my view, physics, experience, and the underlying relation between them are all co-phenomenal and co-epiphenomenal > 2) What is it about the mathematical structures and functions of your > New > Physics that makes it more apt for describing experience than the > Old Physics? Because it recognizes that experience cannot be described in third person terms, and that this fact is not a problem. Rather, the compulsion to turn it into a problem is explained by the understanding that we ourselves are inherently biased because we cannot get outside of the sense of our own collective experience. Instead, we see the function of privatized phenomenology as a natural feature of, as well as a function of matter. -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.
