Hi Bruno Marchal  

Thanks. Then the numbers are noit separate but
included in the truth.  My feeling is that the truth
then may be the truth(s) of information theory.


Roger Clough, [email protected] 
11/2/2012  
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen 


----- Receiving the following content -----  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-11-01, 11:36:18 
Subject: Re: Could universes in a multiverse be solipsistic ? Would this be 
aproblem ? 


On 01 Nov 2012, at 00:35, Stephen P. King wrote: 

> On 10/31/2012 9:39 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
>> 1) Yes, numbers float in a sea of universal mind (the One). 
>> 
>> 2) Here's a thought. If the universe acts like a gigantic 
>> homunculus, with the supreme monad or One as its mind, 
>> then could there be a solipsism to our universe such that 
>> other multiverse versions of oiur universe could not access 
>> (the mind of) ours ? Would this be a problem for multiverse 
>> theories ? 
>> 
>> 
>> Roger Clough,[email protected] 10/31/2012 
> Dear Roger, 
> 
> I think that this idea is exactly wrong. The idea that "numbers  
> float in a sea of universal mind (the One)" makes the explanation an  
> infinite regress. 

Replace the One by arithmetical truth, and the infinite regress  
disappear. 

They reappear *in* arithmetical truth, but have fixed points (some  
provably, some non provably). No problem. 





> That is OK if and only if you allow for the concept of the One to be  
> Kaufman and Zuckerman's Quine Atom aka Russell operator, but if not  
> it does not work. Why? Because numbers have to be distinguishable  
> from to have individual values. The totality of numbers is an  
> infinity and thus have the property that their proper parts cannot  
> be distinguished from their totality. How does the One accomplish  
> this? It seems to me that we have to assume that the One is  
> conscious of the numbers and that makes the numbers something  
> "different" from the One for 1) to work and this is no different  
> from what a finite mind does. My point here is that a mind cannot be  
> infinite because it would be incapable of distinguishing it's self  
> from any of its proper parts - making it the ultimate solipsist. Do  
> there exist maps between the totality of an infinite set to an  
> improper part? If yes, what are their necessary properties? 

The One is solipsist, as the one is unique and alone. But I don't see  
why it should be conscious. It might be, but I see no evidence for this. 

Bruno 



> 
> The idea of 2) seems to be demolished by Dennett's argument  
> against the homunculus or else the One is strictly a solipsist as I  
> argued above. I suspect that the mapping between wholes and improper  
> parts is the same as Bruno's measure problem. 
> 
> --  
> Onward! 
> 
> Stephen 
> 
> 
> --  
> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google  
> Groups "Everything List" group. 
> To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. 
> To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
> [email protected]  
> . 
> For more options, visit this group at 
> http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en  
> . 
> 

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 



--  
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group. 
To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. 
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
[email protected]. 
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to [email protected].
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
[email protected].
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.

Reply via email to