On 11/5/2012 10:40 AM, Roger Clough wrote:
Hi Stephen P. King

You could see it that way, but I only meant that 1p is subjective
(as I see or know it (here,now)) while 3p is objective (as they
see or know whatever, whenever).

Hi Roger,

OK, but isn't the "objectivity" of 3p exactly what many 1p could agree upon and nothing more?

Which raises Wittgenstein's question, "Can there be a
private language ?"
No, because a language is a conversion of the signification of some set of signs between many communicators.



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