On 11/5/2012 10:40 AM, Roger Clough wrote:
Hi Stephen P. King
You could see it that way, but I only meant that 1p is subjective
(as I see or know it (here,now)) while 3p is objective (as they
see or know whatever, whenever).
OK, but isn't the "objectivity" of 3p exactly what many 1p could
agree upon and nothing more?
No, because a language is a conversion of the signification of some
set of signs between many communicators.
Which raises Wittgenstein's question, "Can there be a
private language ?"
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