On 05 Feb 2013, at 21:34, Craig Weinberg wrote:
On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 3:27:27 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:
2013/2/5 Stephen P. King <[email protected]>
Hi,
ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p sense
is to make it meaningless.
That´s it.
But to insist into make the question in 3p may force the
introduction of an implicit 1p that contemplate the 3p, that is, a
metamind , with a metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i don
´t mention the G. world). That is the meaning of my previous response.
Why doesn't the metamind need a metamind?
In fact arithmetic explains the presence of mind, in both the 3p and
1p view. Even without comp actually, by using the definition of mind
by self-reference, and true self-reference (with truth guven by Tarski
theory applied to arithmetic).
Bruno
On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not really.
Cheers
On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a
dominant FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to me
to include the global concept of purpose. The use of this word is
about my only gripe with it. I could be wrong.
Cheers,
K
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Onward!
Stephen
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