2013/2/6 Stephen P. King <stephe...@charter.net>

>  On 2/5/2013 3:27 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>
>
>
>
> 2013/2/5 Stephen P. King <stephe...@charter.net>
>
>> Hi,
>>
>>     ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p sense is to
>> make it meaningless.
>>
>>
>>  That´s it.
>
>
>  But to insist into make the question in 3p may  force the introduction
> of an implicit  1p that contemplate the 3p, that is,  a metamind , with a
> metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i don´t mention the G. world).
> That is the meaning of my previous response.
>
>
> Hi Alberto,
>
>     But the meta versions would be 1p's in their own right, no?
>
>
> Absolutely.  Not only when talking about purpose. Most of the concepts we
use are 1p,  so it is supposed that they are meaningless when used in the
description of a multiverse . Precisely because the multiverse is a design
with the explicit goal of eliminate purpose as an axiom.

But at the end, as I mentioned, this goal is not possible, because we can
not avoid the infinite regression in the search for causes, and causality
is 1p indeed. Se inadvertently, when we talk about what exist and what do
not exist in a multiverse, we turn into looking at an implicit 1p designer
of the multiverse

At the end we can not think outside 1p. Scientific inquiry is  comunicable
1p. Because the world of the mind -where we live- is and ever will be
teleological.

>
>>
>> On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
>>
>>> Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not really.
>>>
>>> Cheers
>>>
>>> On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
>>>
>>>> So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a dominant
>>>> FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to me to include the
>>>> global concept of purpose. The use of this word is about my only gripe with
>>>> it. I could be wrong.
>>>>
>>>> Cheers,
>>>>
>>>> K
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>
>
>
>
> --
> Onward!
>
> Stephen
>
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-- 
Alberto.

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