On 2/6/2013 3:43 AM, Kim Jones wrote:
It may be that like all CREATIVE endeavours (including evolution), the
purpose of the universe is what the universe is endeavouring to
engender. In other words, the universe has no purpose until that
purpose comes into being. When the universe (or multiverse or
whatever) manages to create its purpose, that purpose may be instantly
apparent to all sentient beings inside it. Clearly it hasn't happened
yet, because if it had, this list would no longer be necessary.
Therefore, the purpose of purpose can only be read after the event,
never before it. Maybe take that thought somewhere or other.
I agree 100%. The implied relation to time (via an action of
evolution) that you mention is exactly what I have found to solve the
problem that Leibniz' Pre-established harmony has. It expands on the
idea that 'time exists because everything cannot happen simultaneously'.
On 06/02/2013, at 11:48 AM, Stephen P. King <stephe...@charter.net
On 2/5/2013 3:27 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
2013/2/5 Stephen P. King <stephe...@charter.net
ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p
sense is to make it meaningless.
But to insist into make the question in 3p may force the
introduction of an implicit 1p that contemplate the 3p, that is, a
metamind , with a metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i
don愒 mention the G. world). That is the meaning of my previous
But the meta versions would be 1p's in their own right, no?
On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie
On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or
merely a dominant FUNCTION? The blind exercise of
function doesn't seem to me to include the global
concept of purpose. The use of this word is about my
only gripe with it. I could be wrong.
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