On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:50:35 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:
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> On 05 Feb 2013, at 21:34, Craig Weinberg wrote:
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>
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> On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 3:27:27 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:
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>> 2013/2/5 Stephen P. King <step...@charter.net>
>>
>>> Hi,
>>>
>>>     ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p sense is 
>>> to make it meaningless.
>>>
>>>
>>> That´s it.
>>
>>
>> But to insist into make the question in 3p may  force the introduction of 
>> an implicit  1p that contemplate the 3p, that is,  a metamind , with a 
>> metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i don´t mention the G. world). 
>> That is the meaning of my previous response.
>>
>
> Why doesn't the metamind need a metamind?
>
>
> In fact arithmetic explains the presence of mind, in both the 3p and 1p 
> view. Even without comp actually, by using the definition of mind by 
> self-reference, and true self-reference (with truth guven by Tarski theory 
> applied to arithmetic).
>
> Bruno
>
>
What explains the presence of arithmetic? Or if we assume arithmetic, why 
should there be the presence of anything else?

Craig
 

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>  
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>>  
>>>
>>> On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
>>>
>>>> Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not really.
>>>>
>>>> Cheers
>>>>
>>>> On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a dominant 
>>>>> FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to me to include 
>>>>> the 
>>>>> global concept of purpose. The use of this word is about my only gripe 
>>>>> with 
>>>>> it. I could be wrong.
>>>>>
>>>>> Cheers,
>>>>>
>>>>> K
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>  
>>>
>>> -- 
>>> Onward!
>>>
>>> Stephen
>>>
>>>
>>>
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>>
>>
>> -- 
>> Alberto. 
>>
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> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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