On 21 December 2013 08:12, Stephen Paul King <stephe...@provensecure.com>wrote:

> Dear Jason,
>   I think it was you that wrote (to me):
> "I was not defending that view, but pointing out how ridiculous it would
> be to suppose mathematical truth does not exist before it is found by
> someone somewhere."
>    I am trying to get some thought going. Why is it so ridiculous,
> exactly? If there exists a mathematical theorem that requires
> a countable infinity of integers to represent, no finite version can exist
> of it, in other words, can its proof be found? What is it that "makes it
> true"? If we remove the possibility of ever proving a theorem, what is that
> theorem's possible truth value?
> The maths that describes the behaviour of physical systems must be true
whether anyone knows about it or not, so long as those physical systems
continue to operate in the same manner. For example the inverse square law
was true for billions of years before life evolved on Earth, and for
billions more before Newton discovered it, as can be shown by observing
distant galaxies.

It also seems unlikely that simple arithmetic didn't work until Ug the
caveman (or woman) discovered it. The big bang seems to have done
nucleosynthesis by adding particles together quite happily when presumably
there was no one around to know about it.

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