Dear Bruno,

   You wrote: "Comp does not predict the existence of the moon, but should
predict the physical laws, that is, what is invariant for all
observers/machines. "

  That is the same as my definition of a "reality" for *all*
observers/machines!


On Sat, Jan 11, 2014 at 2:48 AM, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:

>
> On 10 Jan 2014, at 22:51, meekerdb wrote:
>
>  On 1/10/2014 1:04 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>
>  On 09 Jan 2014, at 23:00, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>
>  Dear LizR,
>
>    That is the key question that remains, IMHO, unanswered.
>
>
>  It is answered, completely.
>
>
>
>
> On Thu, Jan 9, 2014 at 4:45 PM, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>>   On 10 January 2014 10:33, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>  I think the question is whether comp determines that the world is
>>> (locally) Lorentz invariant.  If it is, then c is just a unit conversion
>>> factor between the + and - signature terms.  It's value is arbitrary, like
>>> "how many feet in a mile", which is why it is now an exact number in SI
>>> units.
>>>
>>  Oh yes, I seem to remember that physicists like to set c (and h?) to 1.
>>
>>  So does comp predict that any TOE will have a unique solution - namely
>> the one we experience?
>>
>
>  Only from what we have just experienced before. Comp does not predict
> the existence of the moon, but should predict the physical laws, that is,
> what is invariant for all observers/machines.
>
>
>
>
>    So is this an alternative to the WAP - we experience a universe
>> compatible with our existence because such a universe has to drop out of
>> the interations of conscious beings in Platonia?
>>
>
>  As I said, comp uses only a conditional probability, not a bayesian
> relation, which can still be used for geography and history. But the
> physical laws are defined by the general measure on the computation, which
> must exist with comp, and is given by the material points of view (Bp & Dt,
> mainly).
>
>
>
> But can you prove within comp that there must be physical laws,
>
>
> Yes. If not (that is if the physical laws were only the calssical boolean
> tuatologies), the material hypostases would have collapse into
> propositional calculus. So we are assured that some physics exists for any
> universal machines, and is the same for all of them.
>
>
>
> can you prove that solipism is false,
>
>
> Not yet, although Z1* suggests it to be false, as it should give the first
> person plural. Everett of course suggests that it exists empirically, and
> so comp should confirms that. The quantum nature of the Bp & Dt on the
> sigma_1 sentences shows that comp might indeed refute solipsism
> (statistically).
>
>
> that it's not ALL geography and we have nothing to thank for our existence
> but WAP?
>
>
> Only arithmetic.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
> Brent
>
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> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
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-- 

Kindest Regards,

Stephen Paul King

Senior Researcher

Mobile: (864) 567-3099

stephe...@provensecure.com

 http://www.provensecure.us/


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