On Sat, Jul 5, 2014 at 2:37 AM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>>> Obviously if duplication is possible then singular pronouns become
>>> plural ones in the process.
>>>
>>
>> >> Yes, and yet Bruno still demands to know what one and only one city
>> *you* will see. And  things are not made  clear if Bruno adds " from *the*
>> 1P " as if there were only one.
>>
>
> > Quentin is right. You lie.
>    I always insist that they are two 1p after the duplication.
>

Then why does Bruno Marchal keep demanding to know what one and only one
city *you* (which one?) will see from *the* (unique) 1p? If there are two
(and there are) why didn't Bruno Marchal ask what cities John Clark will
see from *a* 1p? And since there are clearly two and thus the referent to
personal pronouns is ambiguous why does Bruno Marchal continue to use them
despite numerous requests to stop?

>> after reading Bruno's last few posts John Clark is no longer even sure
>> what Bruno means by "The Helsinki Man".
>>
>
> > What we have agree on, but you often change the definition, arguing it
> is arbitrary. Once we make the decision, you have to stick on it, even if
> the initial decision was arbitrary.


Fine, so lets get our terms straight. Is "The Helsinki Man" someone who
remembers being a man in Helsinki or is "The Helsinki Man" someone who is
currently experiencing Helsinki? I can work with either definition, they
are after all arbitrary, but as Bruno Marchal says whatever is decided it
is necessary to stick with it.

  John K Clark

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