On 27 March 2015 at 17:13, Platonist Guitar Cowboy <[email protected]
> wrote:

>
> On Fri, Mar 27, 2015 at 3:16 AM, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> PGC - I think you may have skimmed over too much for me to grasp what
>> you're saying. But maybe not. So .... does contradicition arise because you
>> assume to start with that consciousness is created by computation, then
>> show that it would also (assuming physical supervenience) arise from
>> something that isn't computation?
>>
>
> Bruno will kick my butt for vulgarizing his thesis in this improvisatory,
> overly short, imprecise manner. I suspect you're still assuming physical
> universe without being aware of it.
>

Not without being aware. That's why it says "assuming physical
supervenience" :-)

>
>
>> I'm still not sure where the dreams come in, however. (Or the zombies...)
>>
>> On the subject of counterfactual correctness, isn't that the point of
>> Olimpia and Klara? My problem with counterfactual correctness is (probably
>> the same as Maudlin's?) -- how does the system *know* it's
>> counterfactually correct if it doesn't actually pass through any of the
>> "what-if" states?
>>
>
> "The system" is what here? "It" referring to what here? Would you tend to
> interpret these as physical or comp objects?
>

All this is assuming materialism. I can't reject that until I understand
how the MGA does a reductio on it.

>
> Remember that comp supervenience requires physics to become part of
> machine psychology/theology; thus every explanatory potency of a physical
> universe is left behind. The association is some sensation [of my joy in
> space-time (x,t)] to [type] of relative computational state.
>

Yes, I get the general idea. I want the specific details of how to get
there. As I said I don't quite get the MGA.

>
>
>> To put it another way, when you have a recording of the conscious
>> computational states being replayed, what difference could be made by the
>> presence (or absence) of all the extra bits that *would* deal with
>> counterfactual correctness if a different computation was being replayed,
>> but happen in this case not to be used? I can't see how this could make any
>> physical difference to the states being replayed (unless counterfactual
>> correctness introduces some nonphysical magic into the system?)
>>
>
> A machine from which we remove some redundant parts resulting in a finite
> set of states or executions looses counterfactual correctness:
>

Yes I know, but why do (presumably, on a Friday...) materialists like Brent
argue that you need CCness to have a computation - what physical difference
is it supposed to make, in the physicalist ontology?


> The movie is not conscious. The universal machine viewing it via types,
> not tokens, of possible activities keeps CC intact, with consciousness
> supervening on potential activities, and not some brittle, particular
> branch of the same.
>

 Fine but that only works once you've ditched materialism (see above) which
is what I'd like to do to embrace my inner comp, but can't see how (yet).

>
> And yes, we can cite all manner of quantum weirdness and state that
> consciousness supervenes on physical processes that are not actualized.
> This is reasonable since measurements depending on potential observations
> that are non-actualized depend on CC. But here, Bruno iirc pointed out that
> this would be a case of tokens rather than types. In short "Bruno will
> definitely kill me for simplifying and shortening as much as I have" sense,
> consciousness relative to computational state of a universal machine
> supervenes on set of possible accessible extensions of these states
> distributed on the entirety of the UD. PGC
>

Quantum theory gives a new slant on CCness, but is still I think
materialist?

In a nutshell, what I want to know is .... how do I start from the
assumption of materialism, and show it leads to a contradiction? Preferably
in baby steps that even my pretty little head can grasp.

>
>

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