> On 29 Feb 2020, at 06:35, Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> 
> 
> On Thursday, February 27, 2020 at 5:41:57 AM UTC-7, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
>> On 26 Feb 2020, at 18:06, Alan Grayson <[email protected] <javascript:>> 
>> wrote:
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> On Wednesday, February 26, 2020 at 4:35:54 AM UTC-7, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>> 
>>> On 25 Feb 2020, at 12:43, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> 
>>> On Tue, Feb 25, 2020 at 10:26 PM Bruno Marchal <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> On 24 Feb 2020, at 23:22, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>>> On Tue, Feb 25, 2020 at 12:10 AM Bruno Marchal <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>>> On 23 Feb 2020, at 23:49, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>>>> On Mon, Feb 24, 2020 at 12:21 AM Bruno Marchal <[email protected] <>> 
>>>>> wrote:
>>>>> On 23 Feb 2020, at 04:11, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> I don't really understand your comment. I was thinking of Bruno's 
>>>>>> WM-duplication. You could impose the idea that each duplication at each 
>>>>>> branch point on every branch is an independent Bernoulli trial with p = 
>>>>>> 0.5 on this (success being defined arbitrarily as W or M). Then, if 
>>>>>> these probabilities carry over from trial to trial, you end up with 
>>>>>> every binary sequence, each with weight 1/2^N. Summing sequences with 
>>>>>> the same number of 0s and 1s, you get the Pascal Triangle distribution 
>>>>>> that Bruno wants.
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> The trouble is that such a procedure is entirely arbitrary. The only 
>>>>>> probability that one could objectively assign to say, W, on each 
>>>>>> Bernoulli trial is one,
>>>>> 
>>>>> That is certainly wrong. If you are correct, then P(W) = 1 is written in 
>>>>> the personal diary,
>>>>> 
>>>>> I did say "objectively assign". In other words, this was a 3p comment. 
>>>>> You confuse 1p with 3p yet again.
>>>> 
>>>> Well, if you “objectively” assign P(W) = 1, the guy in M will subjectively 
>>>> refute that prediction, and as the question was about the subjective 
>>>> accessible experience, he objectively, and predictably, refute your 
>>>> statement. 
>>>> 
>>>> 
>>>> And if you objectively assign p(W) = p(M) = 0.5, then with the W-guy and 
>>>> the M-guy will both say that your theory is refuted, since they both see 
>>>> only one city: W-guy, W with p = 1.0, and the M-guy, M with p =1.0..
>>> 
>>> That is *very* weird. That works for the coin tossing experience too, even 
>>> for the lottery. I predicted that I have 1/10^6 to win the lottery, but I 
>>> was wrong, after the gale was played I won, so the probability was one!
>>> 
>>> In Helsinki, the guy write P(W) = P(M) = 1/2. That means he does not yet 
>>> know what outcome he will feel to live. Once the experience is done, one 
>>> copy will see W, and that is coherent with his prediction, same for the 
>>> others. He would have written P(W) = 1, that would have been felt as 
>>> refuted by the M guy, and vice-versa.
>>> 
>>> But if he wrote p(W) = 0.9 and p(M) = 0.1 he would get exactly the same 
>>> result. The proposed probabilities are here without effect.
>> 
>> If I toss a perfect coin too.
>> 
>> Of course, that would lead directly to some problem with the iterated case 
>> scenario.
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>>> If not, tell me what is your prediction in Helsinki again, by keeping in 
>>>> mind that it concerns your future subjective experience only. 
>>>> 
>>>> 
>>>> In Helsinki I can offer no value for the probability since, given the 
>>>> protocol, I know that all probabilities will be realized on repetitions of 
>>>> the duplication.
>>> 
>>> In the 3p picture. Indeed, that is, by definition, the protocol. But the 
>>> question is not about where you will live after the experience (we know 
>>> that it will be in both cities), but what do you expect to live from the 
>>> first person perspective, and here P(W & M) is null, as nobody will ever 
>>> *feel to live* in both city at once with this protocole.
>>> 
>>> And, as I have repeated shown, the first person perspective does not give 
>>> you any expectations at all.
>> 
>> If I am duplicated like in the 2^(16180 * 10000) * (60 * 90) * 24 “movie” 
>> scenario, I do expect seeing white noise, and I certainly don’t expect to 
>> see “2001, Space Odyssey” with Tibetan subtitle.
>> 
>> I am not sure what you mean by “the first person perspective does not give 
>> any expectations”.
>> 
>> Do you agree that if you are promised, in Helsinki, that a cup of coffee 
>> will be offered to you, both in M and W, you can expect, with probability 
>> one, to get a cup of coffee after pushing the button in Helsinki? (Assuming 
>> Mechanism, of course).
>> 
>> I would expect, in Helsinki,  to drink a cup of coffee with probability one 
>> (using this protocole and all default hypotheses, like no asteroids hurt the 
>> planet in the meantime, etc.).
>> 
>> And I would consider myself maximally ignorant if that coffee will be 
>> Russian or American coffee.
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>> 
>>> The experience is totally symmetrical in the 3p picture, but that symmetry 
>>> is broken from the 1p perspective of each copy. One will say “I feel to be 
>>> in W, and not in M” and the other will say “I feel to be in M and not in W”.
>>> 
>>> Regardless of any prior probability assignment.
>> 
>> Exactly. 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>>> I cannot infer a probability from just one trial, but the probability I 
>>>> infer from N repetitions can be any value in [0,1].
>>> 
>>> But we try to find the probability from the theory.
>>> 
>>> And we use the experimental data to test the theory. If you predict p(W) = 
>>> p(M) =0.5, after a large number of duplications that prediction will be 
>>> refuted by the majority of the copies. In fact, in the limit, only a set of 
>>> measure zero will obtain p = 0.5 from their data.
>> 
>> Then that is true for the iterated coin tossing too, and there is no 
>> probabilities at all. 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>> 
>>> As I illustrated with the WMS triplication, unknown to the candidate, we 
>>> see that we cannot infer any probabilities, from experiences alone.
>>> 
>>> What the WMS example shows is that if you guess the wrong theory, you will 
>>> get the wrong answer.
>> 
>> Yes, and that shows that the fact the guy in Helsinki knows the true 
>> protocol is important, to derive the theoretical first person indeterminacy.
>> 
>> If you have a problem with the specific answer P = 1/2, keep in mind that 
>> this is not use in the reduction of the mind-body problem the derivation of 
>> matter appearance from a statistics on all computation (“all computations” 
>> being defined in arithmetic). What is used is only the first person 
>> indeterminacy (and some variants) and the fact that the means to calculate 
>> the probabilities, or the credibilities, or the plausibilities is invariant 
>> for the changes made at each step of the Universal Dovetailer Argument.  (P 
>> = 1/2 is used just to fix the idea, and also because most people find this 
>> to be the natural easiest solution with this “simple” protocol).
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>> 
>>> Keep in mind that we *postulate* Mechanism. We work precisely in the frame 
>>> of that theory/hypothesis.
>>> 
>>> 
>>> You might do so. But I do not. I am working with the protocols and data as 
>>> they are generated.
>> 
>> You seem to use also the assumption that there is a physical reality, even a 
>> unique one. That is the point which does no more work when we assume digital 
>> mechanism, or you need to say more about that ontological physical universe, 
>> and explain how it makes consciousness, and how it deprives the same 
>> computation in arithmetic of consciousness.
>> 
>> Bruno 
>> 
>> Bruno; What's the difference between mechanism and digital mechanism?
> 
> 
> In all my posts, there is none. I use Mechanism as a shortcut for “Digital 
> Mechanism”, or “Indexical Digital Mechanism”, that is what I sum up by YD + 
> CT (Yes doctor, for the acceptance of a digital brain, and CT = Church 
> Turing, of Church’s thesis or equivalent).
> 
> Mathematically, we can give sense to “non computable phenomenon”, and some 
> non-digital form of mechanism could not been excluded, bu most described in 
> the literature fails to be non digitalisable, and I am not sure a non digital 
> mechanist hypothesis makes sense, or could be made precise enough. In fact, 
> when a non digital notion is made precise, it usullat can be shown to be 
> digitally emulable, after all. But from a pure logical point of view, we 
> cannot exclude this. Some people do argue that all forms of mechanism are 
> digital. I don’t know, but I study only the consequence of the digital 
> hypothesis. 
> 
> 
> 
> 
>> What's the difference between 1p and 3p?
> 
> It is like the difference between seeing someone tortured and being tortured. 
> The 1p is the first person subjective account of you feel and could write in 
> a personal diary, where, at least in a first approximation, the 3p is the 
> account of an “external observer”. 
> 
> Actually, I have invested the duplication experience tp make clear that 
> difference. In the 3p account, we have a perfect symmetry between the copies, 
> but in the first person diary, it diverges.
> 
> 
> 
> 
>> If digital mechanism (which I assume you mean a brain can be replaced by a 
>> digital computer)
> 
> Roughly speaking, yes. When progressing in the reasoning, that has to be made 
> more precise, but this is better done au fur et à mesure.
> 
> 
> 
>> and the postulates of arithmetic cannot create space,
> 
> Nor does any postulate. The postulation of space does not create space either.
> 
> Now, not only does the postulates of arithmetic not creating space, but the 
> arithmetical reality does not create space either too.
> 
> To be honest, I don’t no what could create space, and I doubt such a thing 
> can ever exist in any other sense that by self-localisation experience made 
> by coherent dreams or “video-games”.
> 
> 
> 
> 
>> how can these two concepts imply and create Many Worlds, presumably worlds 
>> without space? AG  
> 
> 
> What all mathematical logicians do know, (and apparently only them), is that 
> all computations (by definition: a computation is the activity of a universal 
> machine or machinery) are emulated (executed) in virtue of the number 
> relations.
> 
> Exactly like you can prove the existence of all prime numbers, and study they 
> astonishing behaviour, using just the laws of succession, addition and 
> multiplication, you can prove the existence of all computations using just 
> the same laws.
> 
> If you ask, I can explain more on this. I do that for time to time in this 
> list. With all details, or just a sketchy summary, as you want. They key 
> element is the Church-Turing thesis (found by Emil Post before, and 
> understood and made precise by Kleene).
> Church’s thesis is everything but obvious.
> 
> Bruno 
> 
> The bottom line IMO is that you acknowledge NOT being able to use arithmetic 
> to create space,


Yes. Actually I am not sure that anything can create space, but that is not a 
problem a priori, because with Mechanism, there is no space. Like in Kant; it 
is all in the mind (of the universal machine/number, which exists in the sense 
that prime numbers exist)




> regardless of the number of computations, yet you claim to be able to create 
> worlds with arithmetic alone. 

I did not. 



> Have you any way to resolve this insufficiency? It's true that existence of 
> space leaves the question of its creation unresolved, but I fail to see why 
> infinite computations offers an answer. AG

Because with the minimal amount of Mechanism to make sense of Darwin, you 
already get *all* computations, including their redundancy, in arithmetic, and 
things like world, space, energy, bosons, fermions, are show to be “in the 
head” of the universal number/machine.

I can and probably will give more explanations, I have to go now. I will add 
some explanations on this in a new answer to a remark/question by Brent Meeker. 

Bruno






> 
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