Hi dmb,

On Mon, Jul 11, 2011 at 11:35 AM, david buchanan <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> Dan said to Steve:
> .., I tend to agree with you that there is no need to equate morality and 
> causality. I addressed this to dmb but he didn't respond, at least not that I 
> noticed.

>
> dmb says:
> I don't know if anyone equated morality and causality. I've been saying the 
> traditional version of determinism is predicated on the extension of 
> causality into the area of human action and thereby PRECLUDES morality.

Steve:
A lot of philosophers have thought so anyway, but since we don't
accept the underlying premise of the traditional SOM free
will/determinism debate, there isn't much of a point of taking sides
on the matter.

dmb:
This is how determinism is framed in every source I've checked,
including Pirsig description of the classic dilemma. In this standard
framing, freedom and morality go out the window, rules out morality
and freedom, which is the opposite of equating morality and causality.
That, I keep saying, is WHY Pirsig REPLACES causality with patterns of
preference, because that switch denies the central premise of
scientific determinism. It takes the law-like mechanical obedience out
of the picture even at the "physical" level and even less so for
evolved creatures like us. This switch introduces choice even among
the most predictable and regular patterns we know of and the range of
freedom only increases from there.

Steve:
The MOQ obviously reinterprets (rather than wipes from our
vocabularies) EVERYTHING as patterns of preference, so when Pirsig
uses the word "cause" we of course know that he means a stable pattern
of preference rather than the law-like obedience of metaphysical
objects to cosmic rules.
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