Yes, agreed - and yes, Mind is a 'virtual reality'. 

Edwina
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Gary Richmond 
  To: Peirce-L 
  Sent: Thursday, August 18, 2016 2:46 PM
  Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Re: Dynamic/Immediate Object and 
Determination/Causation


  Jon, Edwina, list,


  Yes, I was thinking the same thing. So my conjecture would better be given as 
the immediate object having a virtual reality (not an existence). I think 
Peirce is saying in the quotes I sent that Mind itself is a virtual reality.


  Best,


  Gary R






  Gary Richmond
  Philosophy and Critical Thinking
  Communication Studies
  LaGuardia College of the City University of New York
  C 745
  718 482-5690


  On Thu, Aug 18, 2016 at 2:31 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> 
wrote:

    Edwina, List:


    That is what I was thinking when I asked the question; but you had written, 
"the immediate object [which exists only within the semiosic interaction]" 
(emphasis added).  What would be a more accurate way to express what you 
intended?  Perhaps, "the immediate object [which has being only within the 
semiosic interaction]"?  I have in mind Peirce's distinction between being real 
(all three categories) and existing (Secondness only).


    Regards,


    Jon


    On Thu, Aug 18, 2016 at 1:22 PM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> wrote:

      Jon , List
      I understand existence to mean particular, individual, discrete 
spatiotemporal existentiality; i.e., it has an objective or external reality. I 
consider that the Immediate Object is internal to the semiosic process, and has 
no discrete existence.

      Edwina
        ----- Original Message ----- 
        From: Jon Alan Schmidt 
        To: Edwina Taborsky 
        Cc: Helmut Raulien ; [email protected] ; Peirce-L 
        Sent: Thursday, August 18, 2016 12:12 PM
        Subject: Dynamic/Immediate Object and Determination/Causation


        Edwina, Helmut, List:


        Just wondering--is it right to say that the immediate object exists?  
As object, it falls under Secondness (actuality); but as immediate, it falls 
under Firstness (possibility).


        Thanks,


        Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
        Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
        www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt


        On Thu, Aug 18, 2016 at 10:41 AM, Edwina Taborsky <[email protected]> 
wrote:

          Helmut, list - the dynamic object, i.e., an objective existentiality, 
doesn't determine the immediate object [which exists only within the semiosic 
interaction] ONLY via efficient causality [which does operate within a linear 
temporality in that semiosic interaction] , but via final causality - which 
operates as a continuity of the process of Mind.

          Edwina
            ----- Original Message ----- 
            From: Helmut Raulien 
            To: [email protected] 
            Cc: Jon Alan Schmidt ; Peirce-L 
            Sent: Thursday, August 18, 2016 10:20 AM
            Subject: Aw: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Abductive Form of Inference - CP 5.189 
vs. CP 6.469


            Jerry, Jon, list,
            I think that this example shows, that ordinality is not necessarily 
in accord with categoriality, because categorically induction is secondness and 
deduction thirdness.
            So, what is ordinality? Does it merely mean the sequence in time, 
or does it mean the causation / determination sequence? This question would be 
irrelevant, if both causation and temporality always were in accord with each 
other. But: There is a temporality possible, which is not based on causation: 
The temporal sequence of contingent events. And: May there be a causation 
backwards in time, like with an anticipation? Is it so, that with an 
anticipation, though the immediate object yet is existing, the dynamical object 
is anticipated, i.e. exists in the future merely, so if you say, that the 
dynamical object too determines the sign, this would be a causation backwards 
in time?
            Best,
            Helmut





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