Helmut, list

It wasn't what I was going for, but it is a metaphysical proof, so it will 
share characteristics of arguments such as that, I suppose (thing in itself 
being "noumenal").

Best
Jack


________________________________
From: [email protected] <[email protected]> on 
behalf of Helmut Raulien <[email protected]>
Sent: Sunday, May 28, 2023 7:55 PM
To: [email protected] <[email protected]>
Cc: Peirce-L <[email protected]>
Subject: Aw: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] Re: The Thing In Itself (Kant and Peirce - 
Again). (Assemblage Formalisms - inference).

List,

I have not fully understood the proof of the thing in itself, but it seems to 
me, that it is formally the same or similar as Anselm of Canterbury`s proof of 
God. Is that so?

Best, Helmut


Gesendet: Sonntag, 28. Mai 2023 um 05:16 Uhr
Von: "Jon Alan Schmidt" <[email protected]>
An: "Peirce-L" <[email protected]>
Betreff: Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] Re: The Thing In Itself (Kant and Peirce - 
Again). (Assemblage Formalisms - inference).
Jack, List:

Infinite, continuous, and recursive are not synonymous. Gödel's incompleteness 
theorems pertain only to axiomatic formal systems of mathematical logic. The 
term "value" is vague and still lacks a rigorous definition for how it is being 
used in this particular context. No one is denying "representational inadequacy 
across all [actual] representative schemas," just the additional claim that the 
thing in itself is unknowable in principle.

In short, I cannot "analyze the logical form" of the alleged "proof" as 
requested because I still do not see a coherent argumentation being presented. 
What are the premisses, and what conclusions are being drawn from them? Please 
be specific and explicit.

Regards,

Jon

On Mon, May 22, 2023, 5:50 PM JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY 
<[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
Jon, List,

I disagree that the premise is false. If you look at the logic, (the 
formalism), it is of the continua. It is infinite - continuous - in its 
recursive form. Not tautological, as in that order of "entailment", but 
infinite (perpetuating). Comes with the Kantian price - it, objectivity, only 
functions, and it does, function, (very precisely), if we admit the thing in 
itself.

Now, from within the "ontological continua", Godel's incompleteness resounds 
for representational inadequacy is that wherein representation itself, now, is 
questioned. That is Hume's "value" here. The result is no single value can be 
given to a single element consistently (for there exist competing "values" just 
as worthy for every instance). Thus, is the Bird's value for Snail or the 
Human's value for Snail (situational - in each instance, for birds may fly past 
snails and pick a worm, instead, and the naturalist is not the chef), THE value 
of that organism as element? Or salt, in precisely the same formal series? 
Attached to snail, even. Continua, style. Now, given infinite time, how should 
birds and snails and humans all agree? Absurd? Hardly, for it is metaphysic 
which Peirce admits - is true regardless of what any individual thinks of it - 
but then compromises via "final interpretant". That is, the thing in itself is 
admitted and then denied.

JAS: In other words, the indeterminacy and fallibility of our current 
representations of real objects does not entail that complete and accurate 
representations of real objects are impossible in principle. Again, claiming 
such an entailment blocks the way of inquiry by imposing an artificial and 
unjustifiable limitation on the ongoing quest for knowledge

It's not indeterminacy or fallibility but a determined human representative 
value which clashes with ontological common sense (via logical formalism, not 
just arbitrary). It proves representational inadequacy across all 
representative schemas. Which, in my opinion, is of representation (mediation 
sui generis). A "raised" (meta) claim regarding representation itself from 
within all systems which, if true, and I contend it is whilst remaining open to 
logical refutation (formally), then hardly constitutes a fetter upon inquiry 
but must necessitate a step forward.

You see at once the usefulness of Peirce - for naturalists/but all manners of 
disciplines (particle physics/computation/etc.) - in this series (i)f you 
acknowledge the "limitation" which is no "limitation" if it be actually true. 
Does not having wings correspond to a limitation? Or is it just that which 
prevents me from jumping off a tree and hoping to fly?

I would just ask serious logicians, of which you are one, as far as I know (for 
I have read your materials, and commend them), to analyze the logical form. To 
disregard the Peircean for a moment and then re-insert it after (and see where 
the cookie crumbles). For I do not throw Peirce away, I very much retain large 
amounts of his schema - indeed, the entire premise is Peircean motivated, I 
just think he has it wrong regarding the thing in itself (and think, moreover, 
that it has been proven).

That is - and this is not aimed at you - rather than pick a summary here or a 
quotative there, what I seek is analysis of the logical series and an 
alternative. For I know not else how to go about weighing proofs or alleged 
proofs. We must disregard the terminologies of any given philosopher - suspend 
it for a time - until the logical form is dealt with and then see which schema, 
tradition, personage, best accommodates the result.

Best

Jack
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