Hi Jon,

Which claim about the "thing in itself" in Kant do you take to be mistaken? Can 
you put it in clear terms and tell me where he makes the claim? I'd be 
interested in knowing where you think he goes wrong in more precise terms.

As I've suggested before, one of Kant's main aims in the discussion of the 
conception of a "thing in itself" is to diagnose the errors of other 
philosophers such as Leibniz in his metaphysical account of monads.

Here is an example of a fairly clear passage from the Prolegomena:


§ 32.  Since the oldest days of philosophy inquirers into pure reason have 
conceived, besides the things of sense, or appearances (phenomena), which make 
up the sensible world, certain creations of the understanding 
(Verstandeswesen), called noumena, which should constitute an intelligible 
world. And as appearance and illusion were by those men identified (a thing 
which we may well excuse in an undeveloped epoch), actuality was only conceded 
to the creations of thought.


And we indeed, rightly considering objects of sense as mere appearances, 
confess thereby that they are based upon a thing in itself, though we know not 
this thing in its internal constitution, but only know its appearances, viz., 
the way in which our senses are affected by this unknown something. The 
understanding therefore, by assuming appearances, grants the existence of 
things in themselves also, and so far we may say, that the representation of 
such things as form the basis of phenomena, consequently of mere creations of 
the understanding, is not only admissible, but unavoidable.

Our critical deduction by no means excludes things of that sort (noumena), but 
rather limits the principles of the Aesthetic (the science of the sensibility) 
to this, that they shall not extend to all things, as everything would then be 
turned into mere appearance, but that they shall only hold good of objects of 
possible experience. Hereby then objects of the understanding are granted, but 
with the inculcation of this rule which admits of no exception: "that we 
neither know nor can know anything at all definite of these pure objects of the 
understanding, because our pure concepts of the understanding as well as our 
pure intuitions extend to nothing but objects of possible experience, 
consequently to mere things of sense, and as soon as we leave this sphere these 
concepts retain no meaning whatever."

What strikes me about this passage is the extent to which Kant and Peirce 
appear to agree about the "rule which admits of no exception."

--Jeff
________________________________
From: [email protected] <[email protected]> on 
behalf of Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]>
Sent: Friday, June 2, 2023 1:23 PM
To: Peirce-L <[email protected]>
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] [EXTERNAL] Re: The Thing In Itself (Kant and Peirce - 
Again). (Assemblage Formalisms - inference).

Jack, List:

Again, if the "thing in itself" can be inferred, then it can be represented and 
is not incognizable after all. So, Peirce was right and Kant was wrong.

Thanks,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt<http://www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / 
twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt<http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>

On Fri, Jun 2, 2023 at 1:46 PM JACK ROBERT KELLY CODY 
<[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
The disagreement is about whether a complete representation of an object would 
be impossible in principle, even in the infinite future after infinite inquiry 
by an infinite community; Kant says yes, Peirce says no.
Yes, to this I go directly. I say I have proven Kant is correct here via the 
"thing in itself" which by logical series and deconstruction of the mediatory 
process itself, must be inferred. As it is "in itself", it can never be, to us, 
"as it is in itself".

Best

Jack
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