Steven"

I agree with you in being unable to find what Frances is saying 
intelligible, but I want to take the occasion to ask you what you mean by 
"immediacy", which seems to have a special meaning in your writings which is 
of special importance to you that I don't understand.

Joe Ransdell


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Steven Ericsson Zenith" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Monday, March 13, 2006 12:41 AM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: Representamens and Signs (was "Design and Semiotics 
Revisited" was "Peircean elements")


Dear List,

I was hoping to keep out of this. Mostly I think the deconstruction of
Peirce's writings concerning representamen / sign is a waste of time and
simply unable to produce any meaningful result.

This message by Frances simply makes no sense to me.  How do you,
Frances or Gary, propose a representamen that is prior to "all existent
objects and 'signs' and semiosis" - this assertion makes no sense
ontologically or epistemologically.

Indeed, even if I consider such an argument viable, any such
representamen would not be accessible to apprehension.  It leads me to
believe that there is a misunderstanding in Frances argument concerning
the very nature of semeiosis.

I think you are both reading too much into Peirce's exploration - which
he clearly testifies to.  Consider the two terms a property of the
immediacy of his manifest refinement (his analysis).

With respect,
Steven

Frances Kelly wrote:

>Gary...
>
>Thanks for your search and post.
>As you implied, the distinction attempted to be made by me is in deed
>the difference between "representamens" that are broader and prior to
>all else in the world, including existent objects and "signs" and
>semiosis, and that are independent of thought and mind and sense and
>life itself. The reason for my making this attempt is simply the
>seeming distinction made by Peirce himself in his many passages quoted
>here. Agreeably, it may certainly prove useful to distinguish between
>"signs" conveying notions to human minds and those "representamens"
>which can not or need not do so. My train of thought on this matter
>may of course be way off track, in that there may be no substantial
>distinction at all. The Peircean writings recently posted to the list
>by you on the terms "representamen" and "representamens" and
>"representamina" will be read by me in detail for some insight.
>
>-Frances
>
>
>
>---
>Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
>

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